Distribution of Y-chromosome DNA (Y-DNA) haplogroups of ethnic Macedonians

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Originally Posted by Aemilius

The map was made by FTDNA, and it explains the migration history of Y-DNA carriers. The red texts are my notes I added. If you can't get that then you shouldn't be debating the subject in the first place.

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DONT LISTEN TO THE TROLL. FTDNA RESEARCHERS KNOW WAY MORE ABOUT HG'S THAN RETHEL EVER WILL.

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Originally Posted by Dick

DONT LISTEN TO THE TROLL. FTDNA RESEARCHERS KNOW WAY MORE ABOUT HG'S THAN RETHEL EVER WILL.

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Our leader harbors a I avatar and is H3 or D. Shall we go mutinery?

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Originally Posted by Petalpusher

Our leader harbors a I avatar and is H3 or D. Shall we go mutinery?

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PETALPUSHER1, THE NEW LEADER

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Originally Posted by Petalpusher

The major change since that map was made is R1b found around the Alps in the upper paleolithic, we ll probably find some others as there s little chance it was an isolated event we just happened to stumble upon.

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I think that makes more sense than R1b emerging in Portugal and a reverse migration situation occurring. The suggestion that R1 developed into R1b around the Alps, and then expanding to the rest of Western Europe is more plausible. If R1b developed in Portugal, then it would be isolated in Iberia similar to how E-V13 is very concentrated in the Balkans. The only exception to the rule that I can think of is I2 in Kurdistan, but I need more information on that subject.

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Originally Posted by Aemilius

I think that makes more sense than R1b emerging in Portugal and a reverse migration situation occurring. The suggestion that R1 developed into R1b around the Alps, and then expanding to the rest of Western Europe is more plausible. If R1b developed in Portugal, then it would be isolated in Iberia similar to how E-V13 is very concentrated in the Balkans. The only exception to the rule that I can think of is I2 in Kurdistan, but I need more information on that subject.

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There s very likely two R phenomenons at least for Europe, suggested by adna. A fist one at relatively low frequency in the late paleolithic bringing some ANE admixture (mesolithic HG's have various level of ANE) and a second wave much later after the neolithic with the Bronze Age from the steppes made of most of the R1 clades we know today, but the first input did contributed to the makeup of all Europeans as well, the second being just more apparent in haplo today (what came last..)

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Originally Posted by Aemilius

http://s16.postimg.org/uq9lw73tx/Haplogroup_I2a_gif.png

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So you think that I2a was Sclavinized in a very early stage. Then they multiplied and migrated West and Southward around the Middle Ages. The remaining I2a which remained in the original homeland was somewhat deluded because of other (mostly R1a) migrations. And in the Balkans I2a Slavs encountered the Illyrians and absorbed them or forced them due South. It would make some sense.

One the other hand, if the Slavs were predominantly R1a, then we must conclude that I2a a local Illyrian haplogroup.

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Originally Posted by Dianatomia

So you think that I2a was Sclavinized in a very early stage. Then they multiplied and migrated West and Southward around the Middle Ages. The remaining I2a which remained in the original homeland was somewhat deluded because of other (mostly R1a) migrations. And in the Balkans I2a Slavs encountered the Illyrians and absorbed them or forced them due South. It would make some sense.

One the other hand, if the Slavs were predominantly R1a, then we must conclude that I2a a local Illyrian haplogroup.

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I don't think any ethnic group descends from a single paternal line. That's the greatest obsession among some members here. The suggestion that all ethnic groups descend from a single paternal line is quite frankly silly. It is blatantly obvious that I2 developed in the Ukraine. The bulk of the I2 carriers migrated to the Balkans adding to the predominantly J2 and E-V13 populations. What makes it obvious? The map. The I migration pattern shows that the I carriers arrived in the Ukraine first, then a group of I carriers broke off and continued to migrate toward Scandinavia thereby becoming I1. Those that stayed behind became I2.

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Originally Posted by Aemilius

I don't think any ethnic group descends from a single paternal line. That's the greatest obsession among some members here. The suggestion that all ethnic groups descend from a single paternal line is quite frankly silly. It is blatantly obvious that I2 developed in the Ukraine. The bulk of the I2 carriers migrated to the Balkans adding to the predominantly J2 and E-V13 populations. What makes it obvious? The map. The I migration pattern shows that the I carriers arrived in the Ukraine first, then a group of I carriers broke off and continued to migrate toward Scandinavia thereby becoming I1. Those that stayed behind became I2.

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Yes, seems likely. But there may have been some I2 in the Balkans before the Slavs. I mean, the IE language bearers in the Balkans could have brought some of it, along with R1* and possibly other haplogroups.

How reliable is the MorleyDNA Y-snp haplogroup predictor?

Recently I've put my Myheritage DNA raw data through it and it predicted that I most likely E1b(E-CTS1545 (E-CTS119, E-CTS1446)).

https://ytree.morleydna.com/extractFromAutosomal

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Originally Posted by poiuytrewq0987

YDNA is not a reliable marker of anything. :lol: Only language, history, and culture matter. Should we consider peoples from Spain, to Germany and Italy ancient Fyromians now too? In which case, the Albos of Kosovo are most entitled to ancient Fyromian history, you stealing fag.

http://cdn.eupedia.com/images/conten...roup-E-V13.gif

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Really?
What about the French?
Are they not Celtic/Gaul/Franks in origin?
Can you deny them from their roots just because they now speak a Romance language?
Or what about the Romanians/Vlachs, they now speak Romance language however that is because of the Roman Empire, and was not the original language of the Dacians/Thracians.
Why than we have all that science behind the genetics which starts to get more and more interesting as more and more people test with companies like FTDNA, 23andme etc.
Of course it matters because we can track the movement of people and sometime we can exactly pin point the origin of our ancestors at one point in time.
I am not denying the Albanians of their native origins, however you can not deny many Macedonians from that too, just because they now speak Slavic language.
It is proven many times that language and genetics have nothing to do with each other, so your opinion is just biased and stupid at that one!