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Originally Posted by
Iberia
No, but you said those "pre-Semitic" populations were European-like in appearance and other fairy tales, how could they be so drastically different than today's Semitic populations, when these haplogroups have always been there ? Did the Southwest-asian appear from thin air ?
The main reason is what happened in between, both admixture and, even more important, selective trends.
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But they have a different subclade of R1b than the European one, they are the branch V88 while European the M269, which differs in a certain thousands of years. Plus, autosomally, they are a whole different story.
Yet by yDNA they are closer to European R1b's than to non-R1b's...
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How can't it be pseudoscience when Coon in his maps describes the Egyptians and Arabians the same as Iberians ?? Nonsense.
First of all, Coon is not the end of things, secondly, ancient Egyptians were largely Mediterranoid, not of the same subtype as Iberians, but nevertheless.
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Plus, it's not that I don't like it, is that this thread is about GENETICS.
And what genetic results mean or might mean.
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Being part of euroepan gene-pool doesn't mean it's specific of Europe, since it is found in very low levels, while it reaches 70% in Arabians. Forget the idea of 'pureness' there are no pure europeans. The fact that these components are present, even if at low levels, in europeans, doesn't mean they are specific of Europe.
But they are constitutive, which is crucial.
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It is a non-european component. But Caucasoid , that's what im saying. Scientists also use these same methods, to determine specific ancestry. If you have a certain group of alleles that peak outside of Europe, then they are considerd non-european, regardless of europeans having it at low levels or the age at which they entered. Simple as that. Otherwise we wouldn't be able to determine if a European person has gypsy ancestry or not, or if he has Levantine ancestry. How would you know if a person is 1/2 European and 1/2 Levantine when doing an admixture run ? If you consider them as european. That's the point.
You do that by comparing proportions, not by saying "A is here or B is here" - at least not in comparison with such Europids/Caucasoids.
I
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don't know what is wrong, these populations have european ancestry to a more or less degree, altough some of these populations like Druze or Samaraitians it's as far as the only European component they have, the Med one. Also, note that this mediterranean component not only peaks in Europe, but is also found in much higher percentages all around Europe, reaching considerable percentages also in Easter and Northern Europe, like 17% in Poland, 14% in Scandinavians, etc. It is certainly a paleollithic South-European component, that reached northern-european after the Ice age expansion.
Possible, but how can you know that for sure, without having ancient remains tested?
There were many theories about haplogroups, but some are now gone, because the tests falsified them.
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So, if the West-Asian component is closer to West-European, how is that Georgians and Iranians don't cluster with Europeans, or better said, West-Euroepans, but instead they cluster with Iranians, Assyrians and Turks on genetic PCA plots ?
Because of the proportions and other influences primarily I guess.
Also, these component analysis don't tell you the full story anyway.