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As everyone knows, most North-Americans pronounce "r" at the ends of words whereas British-speakers don't.
Example:
FIREPOWER
British: Fiyah-powah
American: Figh-err-pow-err
Supposedly, in the early 1600s, 'standard' English in England had you pronouncing Rs. Shakespeare and King James would have prounounced Rs (so I'm told). [Thus, the old question about how George Washington's, Jefferson's, etc. accents would have sounded -- Would they have "sounded British"? I have been told that it's, ironically, the opposite: The British of the 1600s would've sounded more like Americans of today than Americans of the 1600s-1700s would've sounded like British of today! I don't see how this could be, but several very smart people have told me this]
What I do not understand is:
Why did pronunciation of the letter R drop-away in Britain itself? Why did it not do so among American settlers?
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