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I just think a large input from Gauls/Belgae/Northern French over 3000 years, plus a small Mediterranean input from the Roman period, can explain it pretty well. I can't see why it wouldn't. Modern Northern French have significantly more Neolithic ancestry than Insular Celts. That there was a Neolithic holdout in Southern Britain is also possible, but that is more likely in mountainous/fringe regions like Cornwall or Wales than the South East that has seen most population change.
I hate to always use personal individual examples but my mother plots around halfway between Iron Age Britons and (non-British admixed) Anglo-Saxons in Davidski's ancient PCA, and yet is still more Neolithic/Southern shifted than Insular Celts.
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