Would you rather live: MEDIEVAL times or ANCIENT GREECE

[wvwvw]

Medieval times. They were probably less harsh, though still very harsh to live in. Antiquity was a slavery ridden mess. It depends on which period in the Middle Ages, though. The late Middle Ages were the best Middle Ages.

The was no slavery in Ancient Greece. The Greek word for slave was worker. Slavery is what you had in the middle ages.

[LoLeL]

good slave boy

[crazyladybutterfly]

oh that series of documentaries
where can i watch it ?

[Hellenas]

Ancient Greece/Rome: a sexually liberal time. Artwork tells that pedophilia, homosexuality, bestiality, incest, orgies were all considered fine. It was a very sexually cultured time period. There are statues or erected penises everywhere lol!

Read it here(in english): https://www.scribd.com/document/2472...nis-Georgiades

[Dandelion]

Hannibal a barbarian? In the broadest sense then, as he was foreign. But Phoenicians were civilised, also in the broadest sense (sacrificing children to Ba'al, if that wasn't Roman propaganda, which I believe wasn't made up by them).

[wvwvw]

As Aristotle explained the poor in Athens were the equivalent to serfs of the middle ages and paid a tithe (well it was actually 1/6) of their produce to the land owner. They were in servitude not slavery. A doulos was a serf not a slave. From doulos derives the word"douleuo" which means 'I work" in Greek. https://el.glosbe.com/el/en/%CE%B4%C...B5%CF%8D%CF%89

Slavery was not common at all. There is hardly any mention by ancient historians of it existing at all.

Debt bondage ie. debt secured on the body of a person who was then legally obliged to work the debt off and which passed from generation to generation if it remained unpaid was made illegal in Athens by Solon in 593 BC.

Serfdom was the equivalent of paying rent for the land which you farmed to the land owner in a society where coins were not the common currency but had barely been invented and barter was the main way of selling or obtaining goods. A doulos would barter their labour. It was not different from someone today working under contract.

The English word "slave" comes from "Byzantine" Greek has no bearing on the meaning of the Ancient Greek word, "doulos". Sklavos comes from the word Slověnci, the name the Slavs called themselves which derives from PIE *kleu-, whose basic meaning is "to hear". It meant Slav not doulos and probably referred to agricultural workers.

The Latin for doulos was servus and meant servant as can be seen from Jeremiah 2:14 in Greek, Latin, Hebrew and English KJV; doulos, servus, ebed, servant; which is what ebed is defined as in Strong's Hebrew Lexicon. The Latin Servus means servant. A doulos was anyone who was in the service of others. Their work served other people's interests not their own.
They were not their own masters. It was no different to actors and musicians being owned by movie and recoding studios. Is a professional footballer or basketball player a slave? Both are bought and sold from and to different owners.

He can only quit if he buys himself out of his contract and the same was true with bondsmen in ancient Greece. In fact Solon passed a law to free them all by making debt secured on the person illegal. The Douloi were the subject of written legal contracts just like footballers today, otherwise Solon's law would have been unenforceable as would any claim that a bandsperson belonged to a specific plaintiff and not the respondent, or had liberated themselves. The main system of buying or selling goods or services in ancient times was through barter. Even if coins existed it was only the rich who could afford them.

"Slave" was not even coined until Byzantine times read any worker, labourer, sold captive, mercenary, private employee, state employee, skilled tradesman or professional.

The ancient Greek word for the modern meaning of "slave" which is not similar to the Byzantine meaning, which just meant a Slav. Prisoners of war sold into bondage had their own name, andrapodoi. Again after the debt was paid (the cost of buying them) they were also free.

Like I said the historical revisionist fabrication of the predominance of slavery in the ancient world was created to justify the Anglo-American slave trade.

Debt being transferred from father to son, as it happens nowadays in India and Pakistan and other third world countries was outlawed by Solon's Laws. Previously if a debtor died before paying off his debts which were secured on his person, those debts passed on to his family and they were obliged to either pay them off immediately or to work them off. That might be considered slavery today, but it was outlawed in 593 BC so does not count.