Indo-European race, does it exist?

[Voskos]

ok ok greeks and swedes are long lost brothers

why do churkas emigrate from their countries

[Voskos]

With vastly difference looks and IQ levels.

you're brown though, aernt you?

[von.nteller]

you're brown though, aernt you?

What does that have to do with the comparison of Swedes to Greeks?

[Voskos]

ohh they all look same now.

are you fucking kid me. i put what google gave me in the first page.


indo europeans are heterogenous as fuck. both genetically and phenotypiccally. so answer my question or get the fuck out of my thread. does indo european race exist? if yes, which one is real indo european because they all look different.

are you retarded or something? being indoeuropean doesn't imply 100% of your ancestry is from the steppe. but yeah even this brown dravidian is IE while you aren't, and you're just chimping about it. cry me a river : D

[Not a Cop]

ohh they all look same now.

are you fucking kid me. i put what google gave me in the first page.


indo europeans are heterogenous as fuck. both genetically and phenotypiccally. so answer my question or get the fuck out of my thread. does indo european race exist? if yes, which one is real indo european because they all look different.

If you want a serious answer than you can have my opinion:

IEs are result of extremly fast expansion of EHG from modern S. Russia, whom firstly mixed with CHGs and formed Yamnaya and other PIE cultures and after spred West to Europe and South and East into Anatolia, Iran, Indian and Central Asia.

So form genetic point of view "IE genes" should be considered to be EHG, since they most likely gave birth to IE.

[Al-Meksiki]

Nah, the defining influences of the Indo-Europeans was their language and cultural traits. By the time they were migrating into Europe, Anatolia, and Iran-India, they had already broken up into distinct entities, and most of the people who took up their languages and traits were natives who were assimilated by the ruling elite.

[TenaciousTopologist]

Absolutely not. That claim is as ludicrous as designation of hispanic/latino on the United States census.

[Newsboy]

Nah, the defining influences of the Indo-Europeans was their language and cultural traits. By the time they were migrating into Europe, Anatolia, and Iran-India, they had already broken up into distinct entities, and most of the people who took up their languages and traits were natives who were assimilated by the ruling elite.

Yeah I guess so

[Rethel]

Bump

[wvwvw]

17 DNA lineages make up the European population, 10 male and 7 female. NONE of them could possibly be the linage of any so-called Indo-European tribe because there is NO common linage to all Indo-European speaking areas. M173 exists in Iberia but not a trace of it is found in Persia where M35 and M172 are the common lineages. M172 is not found in Germany where M170 is the most common linage but this is also not found in Persia. M70 is found in Slavic populations but is not extant in Italy so how could there have been an Indo-European tribe in all of these places. The fact is that Indo-European is a combination of at least a dozen pre-extant languages and evolved over thousands of years. Most words concerning Agriculture come from the M172 and M35 populations.