Proto-Indo-Iranians: White or not?

[LoLeL]

White or non-White, they were probably very similar to this woman from Tajikistan:

[zarzian]

1. Yamna was half caucasian, not asian, becasue they were massivly buying abkhasian concubines.
2. Protoindoiranians were NOT from Yamnayans directly, but from Cordeds.
3. Even Yamna was from earlier whiter stages.

Maykop, which had its roots in the south Caspian, is responsible for the West Asian component of the Yamna, and they were all R1b Z2103 which is an eastern subclade of R1b. Infact Yamna have more European mtDNA then West Asian. The West Asian component originated in Western Iran and the Armenian highlands.

[Rethel]

Maykop,(...) they were all R1b Z2103 which is an eastern subclade of R1b.

Do you have some link?

[zarzian]

Do you have some link?

I meant the Yamnaya were Z2103.

[Proto-Shaman]

Yes, they would have been white (like Caucasus-like people). They only became brown by mixing with Australoid influenced South Asian types.

There is evidence demonstrating the opposite. Indo-Aryans always looked the same.

"The postulation of PIE together with a specific homeland in Europe or Turkey does violence to facts. There is no evidence that the natives of India for the past 8,000 years or so have looked any different from what they look now. The internal evidence of this literature points to events that are as early as 7000 years ago (Kramrisch, 1981) and its geography is squarely in the Indian region. If there was no single PIE, there was no single homeland either."

Indic Language Families and Indo-European. Subhash Kak. Yavanika, Number 6, 1996, pp. 51-64

[Sacrificed Ram]

Indoeuropeans originated in whole Eastern Europe.
Indoiranians came from very eastern Cordeds. Steppoids
are only a part of all Indoeuropeans from that time, maybe
the biggest or mostly archeologocally recognizable.

And of course yes, Protoindoiranians were whites.

Explain SATEMIZATION of slavs.

[Rethel]

Explain SATEMIZATION of slavs.

What it has to do with that?

Explain satemization of French, Spaniards and Anglos...

[Sacrificed Ram]

What it has to do with that?

Explain satemization of French, Spaniards and Anglos...

They ever was CENTUM. The question is why are slavic languages (as baltics) more related with indo-iranic languages than with rest of Europe languages? If the influence was from Europe to Asia or from Asia to Europe.

[Proto-Shaman]

What it has to do with that?

Explain satemization of French, Spaniards and Anglos...

lol since when Centum-Latinos have Satemization?

[Rethel]

They ever was CENTUM.

French: 100 - sɑ̃
Spanish: 100 - syen
English - sent, sinema, sinamon etc

Indoeuropean k => s.

The question is why are slavic languages (as baltics) more related with indo-iranic languages than with rest of Europe languages?

Becasue are from close neighbourhood.
And btw, this classification is not only one existing.
Other calssifications put Slavic, Baltic and Germanic into one group.
Greek, Armenian and Indo-Iranian in the second aso.
No satem no kentum thing. It is very disscusional anyway.

If the influence was from Europe to Asia or from Asia to Europe.

It doesn;t matter, because, if Protobaltoslavs lived close to
Protoindoiranians in Corded Era, everything is undestandable.
And it is Indo-Iranian languages who are hugly broken, not
the Slavic and Baltic. Actually they are the best preserve
Indoeuropean languages today with Polish on the top.