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It is universally accepted Fact that Slavs came to Balkans and that their haplogroups are I2a1, R1a
However!
Vlachs are I2a1 as well, not any I2a1 but CTS 10228.
In 1850 A.D. Serbia had 150.000 Latin speaking (Only Latin Speaking) Vlachs who were Orthodoxes, who were again I2a1b CTS 10228 predominantly.
In 6th century A.D. Vlachs (as it was described by Slavic people) were Majority of Balkan peninsula.
Quesion is simple:
If I2a1 is Slavic and if it came with Slavs, how did Vlachs became I2a1 CTS 10228?
If Slavic man married Vlach woman then it would be logical that Slavic would a primary language, but NO! Latin was a major language in Serbia among the Vlachs up to 1850 when they were Assimilated into Serbs by Education System of early Jugoslavia and Serbia.
Also, Vlachs could not learn Latin in Poland or Ukraine nor they learned it later cause they were not Catholics.
Also when I asked them about Identity they all responded: "We are Romans!" They denounced catholics as "Frankish and Germanic people"
So I2a1b CTS 10228 could NOT arrive from Poland, Vlachs are a PRIME EXAMPLES of that.
Truth is: Vlachs are Romanized Balkan people, while I2a1 Serbs are non-Romanized Balkan people.
Even Romans used to say: "Illyrians and Thracians are extremely difficult to Romanize(Latinize)"
So no, I2 people are not people from Ukrainian Steppes or Russia, but people from Balkans.
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