Why do Greeks appropriate the Roman Empire?

[Voskos]

Joke's on you. The Roman empire was for the most part Anatolian in a genetic sense(at least the Asian part), and Ottomans gradually Turkified it starting from Bythinia. Rome for Turks is the past you want to forget because of your identity problem, that of being ex-Romans who now speak the language of camel urine-drinking Turks.

[Thanas Django]

[Mingle]

Our alphabet are the Orkhon runes. That's self-developed based on seal symbols and not Semitic unlike Greek that was direct Phoenician copy-paste you curly hair animal.

The Turkic script is also Semitic in origin. It comes from Sogdian which comes from Syriac which comes from Aramaic which comes from...Phoenician. Phoenician then comes from Egyptian.

But the Turkic script underwent more evolution than the Greek script, which comes directly from Phoenician.

Only three major scripts were developed independently - Egyptian (Egypt), Isthmian (Mesoamerica), Chinese (China).

A few others like Cuneiform (Sumer), Hangul (Korea), Hiragana (Japan), etc. were also developed independently, but their range was very small and limited.

[Scholarios]

Greeks dont appropriate it. Greeks are actually Romans. Your term "Byzantine" is a recent invention foisted on us by modern Westerners.

[Böri]

The Turkic script is also Semitic in origin. It comes from Sogdian which comes from Syriac which comes from Aramaic which comes from...Phoenician. Phoenician then comes from Egyptian.

But the Turkic script underwent more evolution than the Greek script, which comes directly from Phoenician.

Only three major scripts were developed independently - Egyptian (Egypt), Isthmian (Mesoamerica), Chinese (China).

A few others like Cuneiform (Sumer), Hangul (Korea), Hiragana (Japan), etc. were also developed independently, but their range was very small and limited.

No. Sogdian is hypothesis. Most scholars incl. Thomsen who read Orhon runes for first time said Turks developed the alphabet themselves being influenced by Chinese. That’s self-developed and independent too.

[Dick]

Greeks dont appropriate it. Greeks are actually Romans. Your term "Byzantine" is a recent invention foisted on us by modern Westerners.

Well yes, Greeks called themselves Romans not Byzantines. I wonder where this 'Byzantium' label stems from in the first place in western history books.

[Tauromachos]

The Roman empire was founded in Italy. It was an officially Latin state. Then this empire split in two parts, the eastern part like the western part remained of course Latin speaker.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Byzantium

. Traditional legend says Byzas from Megara (a city-state near Athens) founded Byzantium in 667 BC when he sailed northeast across the Aegean Sea. The tradition tells that Byzas, son of King Nisos (Νίσος), planned to found a colony of the Dorian Greek city of Megara. Byzas consulted the oracle of Apollo at Delphi, which instructed Byzas to settle opposite the "Land of the Blind". Leading a group of Megarian colonists, Byzas found a location where the Golden Horn, a great natural harbor, meets the Bosporus and flows into the Sea of Marmara, opposite Chalcedon (modern day Kadıköy). He adjudged the Chalcedonians blind not to have recognized the advantages the land on the European side of the Bosporus had over the Asiatic side. In 667 BC he founded Byzantium at their location, thus fulfilling the oracle's requirement.

The Turkic script is also Semitic in origin. It comes from Sogdian which comes from Syriac which comes from Aramaic which comes from...Phoenician. Phoenician then comes from Egyptian..

There aren't even real proofs that the Greek script was of Semitic origin.

As for Turks,the ancestors of modern Turks in Turkey didn't use a Turkic script of their own but Arabic letters
and Ottoman high society often spoke Persian many also spoke Greek.

The Arabic letters were used in the Ottoman empire for centuries until Ataturk abandoned them and introduced
the Latin script.

[Yaglakar]

The Turkic script is also Semitic in origin. It comes from Sogdian which comes from Syriac which comes from Aramaic which comes from...Phoenician. Phoenician then comes from Egyptian.

But the Turkic script underwent more evolution than the Greek script, which comes directly from Phoenician.

Only three major scripts were developed independently - Egyptian (Egypt), Isthmian (Mesoamerica), Chinese (China).

A few others like Cuneiform (Sumer), Hangul (Korea), Hiragana (Japan), etc. were also developed independently, but their range was very small and limited.

Most likely true. Adaptation of the Sogdian script to sounds of Turkic began around 5th century - Gaochang period. One little correction though, Orkhon Türk inscriptions, not Turkic ones (encompassing/enveloping), almost entirely unrelated to Aral-Caspian Oghuz. Recently Bori started claiming that Aral-Caspian Oghuz are descendants of Türks, while others are not. Based on his posting history he revised his stance from another commonly held fairy tale, that all Turkics descend from Türks.

[Thanas Django]

Most likely true. Adaptation of the Sogdian script to sounds of Turkic began around 5th century - Gaochang period. One little correction though, Orkhon Türk inscriptions, not Turkic ones (encompassing/enveloping), almost entirely unrelated to Aral-Caspian Oghuz. Recently Bori started claiming that Aral-Caspian Oghuz are descendants of Türks, while others are not. Based on his posting history he revised his stance from another commonly held fairy tale, that all Turkics descend from Türks.

What is your opinion on Greeks/Rum and the Roman empire?

[Nazarene]

We Wuz Kangz