"Proto-Iranians were not Northern Europeans"

[MS85]

Yes my fake kurdish troll friend, please keep on going.

I will only change my mind when people can disprove my arguments.

Just tell me why proto-Indo-Iranian had an ergative construction while there is no ergativity in the Steppes.

Just tell me why the ancient Steppes and Yamnaya were full of Near Eastern auDNA.

Just tell me why all examined ancient known IEan speaker groups like the Mycenaeans and the Hittites were mostly J2a and the Steppes ancestry was almost absent among them.


I want and I'm ready for a REAL discussion here.

[MS85]

I will only change my mind when people can disprove my arguments.

Just tell me why proto-Indo-Iranian had an ergative construction while there I no ergativity in the Steppes.

Just tell me why the ancient Steppes and Yamnaya were full of Near Eastern auDNA.

Just tell me why all examined ancient known IEan speaker groups like the Mycenaeans and the Hittites were mostly J2a and the Steppes ancestry was almost absent among them.


I want and I'm ready for a REAL discussion here.

I forgot eastern Iranian BMAC J2 folks and other ancient South Asian people.

[MS85]

You tell me:

The best reply I have seen here.

[Pandit]

That's it, i am moving to Norway for Nordic beauties.

[Fibonacci]

Just tell me why all examined ancient known IEan speaker groups like the Mycenaeans and the Hittites were mostly J2a and the Steppes ancestry was almost absent among them.

Its called the spread of language. Answer my question, in your logic, am I right to say that French is an african language just because of the fact that it
is the official language of multiple african countries?
just like how the africans were colonized by the french and adopted the french language, you sir are sumerian semite whose ancestors had to adopt the an indo european language.
Unlike you, the average Iranian has up to 25% steppe ancestry, youre arguing for no one but yourself. just because youre an unmixed native sumerian, it doesnt mean
everyone else around you the same.

[Fibonacci]

Just tell me why all examined ancient known IEan speaker groups like the Mycenaeans and the Hittites were mostly J2a and the Steppes ancestry was almost absent among them.

Its called the spread of language. Answer my question, in your logic, am I right to say that French is an african language just because of the fact that it
is the official language of multiple african countries?
just like how the africans were colonized by the french and adopted the french language, you sir are sumerian semite whose ancestors had to adopt the an indo european language.
Unlike you, the average Iranian has up to 25% steppe ancestry, youre arguing for no one but yourself. just because youre an unmixed native sumerian, it doesnt mean
everyone else around you is the same.

Tajiks and other eastern iranians are mostly steppe. Ive seen tons of afghans with blue eyes, and as far as history goes, blue eyes evolved somewhere near the black sea.
So how did these afghans get their blue eyes exactly? out of the desert or ancestors from the steppe? no one here agrees with what you have to say because youre
the only person in the world who doesnt agree with the concept of indo european languages.

[zarzian]

The purpose of this thread is to shut the mouth of the Iranic WE WUZ'ers who deny that Indo-Iranic was brought by Northern Europeans to South Asia.

[1] "distance%=1.3205"
Pashtun

BMAC,34.8
Indus_Valley_Civilization,34.8
Russian_Steppe_MLBA,26.2
Mongola,4.2

[1] "distance%=1.6721"
Brahmin_West_Bengal

Indus_Valley_Civilization,71.4
Russian_Steppe_MLBA,21.2
Onge,4.2
Mongola,2.6
BMAC,0.6

[1] "distance%=1.4714"
Brahmin_Gujarat

Indus_Valley_Civilization,64.8
Russian_Steppe_MLBA,21
BMAC,13.4
Mongola,0.8

[1] "distance%=1.8399"
Gujarati

Indus_Valley_Civilization,87.2
Russian_Steppe_MLBA,11.8
BMAC,0.6
Mongola,0.4

[1] "distance%=1.6467"
Tajik_Yagnobi

BMAC,50
Russian_Steppe_MLBA,43.4
Mongola,6.6

Now lets me make a experiment, what if we replace Russian_Steppe_MLBA for Scandinavians?

[1] "distance%=1.689"
Brahmin_West_Bengal

Indus_Valley_Civilization,73.8
Norwegian,19.4
Mongola,3
Onge,2.4
BMAC,1.4

Works equally well.
Norwegian-like admixture in Brahmins? This is not possibru...
Cope with that, Iranians.

I dont know why a quadroon brown nigger Brazilian is so obsessed with Iranians, go back to pick pocketing in your Downtown Rio favela. And your claims will not fly as ancient Iranians have 0 influence from Northern Europeans, the Psuedo Northern European signal is just assimilated Nomads which carried the EHG Signal. Iranians are majority J2, the same signal in Myceneans and Hittites. Meanwhile R1 carriers genocided the Old European males and bred with Farmer wives, in essence Most Europeans are half cuckbreed because the farmer wives carried the cuck genes since their fathers were cucks.

[PaleoEuropean]

True but not all non-European lineages are Indo-Aryan. Many groups like J, E and some R's came up through Anatolia. Bosnians, Serbs and Croats have a higher affinity to Northern Europeans than most Germanic and French people do as they largely descend from WHG lines like I1 and I2.

[MS85]

Its called the spread of language. Answer my question, in your logic, am I right to say that French is an african language just because of the fact that it
is the official language of multiple african countries?
just like how the africans were colonized by the french and adopted the french language, you sir are sumerian semite whose ancestors had to adopt the an indo european language.
Unlike you, the average Iranian has up to 25% steppe ancestry, youre arguing for no one but yourself. just because youre an unmixed native sumerian, it doesnt mean
everyone else around you is the same.

Tajiks and other eastern iranians are mostly steppe. Ive seen tons of afghans with blue eyes, and as far as history goes, blue eyes evolved somewhere near the black sea.
So how did these afghans get their blue eyes exactly? out of the desert or ancestors from the steppe? no one here agrees with what you have to say because youre
the only person in the world who doesnt agree with the concept of indo european languages.

Big fail. Unlike 1 uniform French language, the language of the Hittites and the Mycenaeans was not the same. Mycenaeans spoke proto-Hellenic, while the language of the Hittites was part of the Anatolian language family. So we have here 2 different ancient language families here in 1 small area.
People like you have no explaination and fail to face the facts and the only argument what they can ever use is 'elite dominace'.
They found out that the language of the Hittites could even predate the Yamnaya!

Sumerians were not Semitic. Sumerians were very different from the Semitic Akkadians.

Some steppes ancestry in Iranians is not that old and risen in Iran only after the Iron Age. Some steppes ancestry in Iran came AFTER the Aryan era of people like Mitanni, so only AFTER the Scythians and it could be just related to those people.

They tested the ancient Zoroastrian Parsen who never mixed with the Muslims and those Zoroastrian Parsen from Iran were just native people of Iran. There was almost no Steppes ancestry in those Parsen.

Do you know the actual history of the Tajiks, lol. Tajiks have Persian origin, nothing to do with the Steppes. Real Tajiks came from Iranian people who spoke Farsi. Eastern Iranians have a lot Mongoloid auDNA in them. So there was a migration of people from the Steppes who was partly Mongoloids. Those people who brought Mongoloid auDNA with them into SouthCentral Asia could be also the very same people who brought other Steppe related ancestry. There is absolutely no evidence that it was brought by ancient proto-Iranians.

There are many explanations for that. You are only obsessed with 1 option and forget about all other 1000 different options.

[Token]

Big fail. Unlike 1 uniform French language, the language of the Hittites and the Mycenaeans was not the same. Mycenaeans spoke proto-Hellenic, while the language of the Hittites was part of the Anatolian language family. So we have here 2 different ancient language families here in 1 small area.
People like you have no explaination and fail to face the facts and the only argument what they can ever use is 'elite dominace'.
They found out that the language of the Hittites could even predate the Yamnaya!

Sumerians were not Semitic. Sumerians were very different from the Semitic Akkadians.

Some steppes ancestry in Iranians is not that old and risen in Iran only after the Iron Age. Some steppes ancestry in Iran came AFTER the Aryan era of people like Mitanni, so only AFTER the Scythians and it could be just related to those people.

They tested the ancient Zoroastrian Parsen who never mixed with the Muslims and those Zoroastrian Parsen from Iran were just native people of Iran. There was almost no Steppes ancestry in those Parsen.

Do you know the actual history of the Tajiks, lol. Tajiks have Persian origin, nothing to do with the Steppes. Real Tajiks came from Iranian people who spoke Farsi. Eastern Iranians have a lot Mongoloid auDNA in them. So there was a migration of people from the Steppes who was partly Mongoloids. Those people who brought Mongoloid auDNA with them into SouthCentral Asia could be also the very same people who brought other Steppe related ancestry. There is absolutely no evidence that it was brought by ancient proto-Iranians.

There are many explanations for that. You are only obsessed with 1 option and forget about all other 1000 different options.

LOL, the retarded Iranicized Assyrian went full crazy now.