What do you think of the statement though? http://www.theapricity.com/earlson/reeh/reoehchap10.htm
A similar quote can be found here, "The Thirty Years War is looked on by American writers13 as the main cause of the denordization of Germany. Although this war deprived the German people of perhaps two-thirds of its then population, and although probably it was the warlike Nordic men who had entered the armies, and the ranks especially of the nobility, which provided the leaders, were again thinned, I am inclined to put the beginning of a strong denordization of the German-speaking areas in a later, perhaps very late, time. Wars, indeed, in Europe have always had a denordizing effect, but the birth-rate of those classes richest in Nordic blood was down to late times probably always high enough to make good even heavy losses up to a certain point.14 The denordization of Germany probably began slowly in the Middle Ages, and was greatly hastened by the Thirty Years War, but perhaps did not gather speed and reach the strength it has to-day until the beginning of the nineteenth century -- just as the nineteenth century brought to all peoples of Germanic speech an ever-growing process of denordization."
What do you think about it now?
I think once I already read that. It's true that in Germany (as well as in other Germanic or also Slavic countries) the percentage of Nordids has declined.
I think Agrippa also wrote about this. Alpinids became more as they were better adapted to worse types of nurture and also were mostly engaged in agriculture, so they had better chances of survival in war.
But this wasn't restricted to Germany alone. And afaik Germany lost about 1/3 and not 2/3 of it's population in the war unlike stated in the article, just to mention it.
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