Vasil Kanchev was not alive during the end of the 18th century and I was wondering what sources he uses for that claim. It could be true but I was wondering how credible the statement is. Did he interview locals around the area? Is there a source provided elsewhere in the book? Maybe you can provide some insight.Translation: The Albanian colonisation of the Polog valley began to exacerbate at the end of the 18th century. During this time in Tetovo the local pasha’s, who were of Albanian origin, brought in workers from Albania to work the fields… The same with the villages of Florina and Chajle, as Alabanians from Korito village were brought in to settle the newly vacated Macedonian villages around the turn of the 19th century, on the request of the pasha’s in Tetovo.
Also there have been population movements throughout history. If you, or any Albanian, Serb, Greek, Bosnian, etc think your ancestors have been living in the same town/city for centuries upon centuries then I think you are delusional. With that said, Slavic migration is well doucmented while most historians agree Albanians are descendents of Illyrians, thus, our migration, if you will call it that, has mostly been in the same general area.
The grandparents' of the prime minister of Macedonia fought in the Greek civil war and you people want to speak on this supposive "Kosovar immigration."
You live in Skopje, and I can almost guarntee your parents (or grandparents) did not live there before the 60's........
There's two competing theories regarding the ethnogenesis of Slavic-speaking peoples.
If you follow the Kurgan Hypothesis that dates PIE to the Chalcolithic (6000-4000BC), the Slavs originated in what is now Ukraine and Belarus and migrated beyond the Carpathians to form the South Slavic ethnic groups around the 5th and 6th centuries AD.
If you follow the Paleolithic Continuity Theory (which is becoming increasingly popular), it argues that all languages developed in the regions which they are more or less spoken in today as well as language being linked to the arrival of Homo Sapiens in Europe and Asia, hence PIE would be dated to around the Upper Paleolithic (45,000 to 10,000 years before present). A part of this theory is that the Slavic languages actually originated in the Balkans and spread North and West from there.
If the Kurgan Hypothesis holds true, the Slavs were never any sort of a united, homogenous population but rather they would have been a combination of Indo-European and Pre-Indo-European peoples (the Cucuteni-Trypillian culture of Ukraine-Moldova-Romania which declined around 2750BC, likely to due assimilation by Indo-Europeans), who also later came to absorb numerous Baltic, Iranic and Gothic/Germanic influences.
If the Paleolithic Continuity Theory holds true, today's South Slavs are the legitimate "Slavs" (not that they are homogenous either).
"You're all the same you foreign cunts. Weak as piss."
“I looked up at the mass of signs and stars in the night sky and laid myself open for the first time to the benign indifference of the world.”
― Albert Camus, L'Étranger
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