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As far as language goes that seems about right but honestly for phenotypes it just makes no sense. I am betting the solutrean in iberia are where r1b comes from and that r1a comes from east europe and has about the same borders as now for a long time (maybe formerly more).
I know the counterarguments, I just think they are wrong, being based on junk science of molecular clocks and and a couple ancient DNA samples from neolithic farmers that didn't turn out to be r1b. Whatever. There's just no way that the celts turned iberia into r1b, if anything more like the other way around.
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