The Germanic marker is I-M170

[wvwvw]

The Germanic marker is M170 and this places the Germanics in the same M89/213 group as the Hittites and Iranians.

The Iberian/Celtic/Italic marker is M173 which is part of the M09 linage making the closest relatives of the Slavs M17, and Native Americans M45/74.

The Finnic marker is part to the M09 TAT linage which makes them closest relatives to the Huns and Southern Indians. The M09 group also includes the Chinese.

The Pelsasgian Greeks and Phoenicians are part of the YAP M35 linage. They are closely related to 1/3 of the Japanese population.

The Aboriginals, Mongols and Eskimos are part of the RPSY/M216 linage.

The "blond" gene originates from the part of M89/213 linage which does not contain the M09 mutation, i.e. the Hittites, Germanics etc. The ability to digest milk is probably from this linage also.

There were no Germanic tribes in western Europe until 200 BC when they came to the Balkan region of Croatia from Cimmeria on the north coast of the Black Sea.

[wvwvw]

Genetically speaking the British are 70% of Iberian M173 linage origin and 30% of Germanic M170 linage origin.

Since there was no M170 linage in the British population before the Anglo-Saxons invaded it is clear that the M170 linage came from them. Since the Anglo-Saxons were composed a 50/50 mix of the M170 and M173 linages it is obvious by extrapolation that 2/3 of the people of Britain have to be of Anglo-Saxon decent.

The Celtic genetic marker is part of the M173 linage and this makes up the majority of the population of central western Europe (Rhone/Rhine/Danube)which is where the Celts lived according to Apollonius writhing in c.735 BC.

[wvwvw]

Germanic and Celtic are not linguistic but tribal terms. The original language of the Celts who all originated from Iberia was Basque up until they came into contact with the Greeks in Minoan times.

The Germans, Celts and Slavs are described as specific tribal groups by Greek and Latin authors. EVERYTHING about their tribal origins and their movements is known for the past 3500 years because it is recorded in literature. Prior to 1200 BC the Celts were a single undiluted tribal grouping carrying the M173 lineage who came from Iberia. Prior to 200 BC the Germanics were single undiluted tribal grouping carrying the M170 lineage who came from Cimmeria. Prior to 600 BC the Slavs undiluted tribal grouping carrying the M17 lineage who came from Central Asia and originally spoke a Dravidic-Altaic-Uralic dialect.

When using the term Germanic I am using Tacitus definition of who they were in his time NOT who you think they are now since today the people of Germany are mixed with the Celts whose land the seized. In respect of the Slavs I am referring to Cyril and Methoditus historic account and not to the Poles or Croats of today who are of nearly 50/50 of mixed Slav and Germanic linages, and in respect of the Celts I am using Apollonius historic account of who the were an not to any modern mixed lineages. The inhabitants of Greece were already of mixed lineages since Minoan times 5000 years ago. There were no Germanics in Celtic lands until 200 BC.

The Germanics are part of the M89 lineage which does not contain the M09 mutation, and thus they originated from the same linage as the Hittites and Iranians. Therefore the came from Syria. The M170 mutation occurred in Syria and its carriers moved to Asia anti-clockwise 15,000 years ago.

The Cimmerians came from Asia which is consistent with the origin of the Germanic tribes.

[wvwvw]

It is the Germanic identifying marker and apears in all the places the Germanic tribe are recorded to have been amongst the markers of the earlier inhabitants. The fact that Tacitus said all the Germanics looked the same indicates that they were an unmixed racial group up until Roman times which is when they subsumed the Celts in what is now Germany and thus formed what became the Anglo-Saxon tribes. In the Balkans the Germanics remained mostly untainted except by the 3 main markers of the Greeks and Illyrians to about 20% until the Slavs came along in 600 AD. There is a grater proportion of the M170 marker in the Croats than in Germany, so its no wonder they supported Hitler in WW2.

Going by Tacitus description of the Germanics it is almost certain that they were purely M170 until the fall of Rome.

From that it is implicit that the Celts and Slavs must have been pure racial groups also.

The Chinese for example even today are 99% from one single linage.

Since the Slavs originated from Asia you would have expected other Asian DNA markers in all Slavic populations if they had mixed with the other Asian groups before they came to the Balkans in 600 AD, but this is not the case. No other Asian markers, Mongol, Hunza or Finnic exist in any Balkan Slavic groups to any significant degree. If the main Slavic body (excluding those which migrated to northern India in 2000 BC) did not mix with other Asian populations why should it have mixed with the Germanics before the Slavs came to the Balkans in 600 AD.

The indications are that the Slavs were originally part of the Basque language group 20,000 years ago before the appearance of the M17 linage.

The maind body of the original M173 linage had by then migrated to Iberia and became the ancestors of the Celts and Italics.

The Slavs then joined the Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric language identity untill 1400 BC when the Hittite-Iranian M89 linage conquered India. Thus the 3 cast system was formed, Dravidians being the lower cast followed by Slavs and Hittite-Iranians.

This Hittite-Iranian invasion forced the main body of the Slavs into the Ukraine which displaced the M89-M170 Germanics into Circaria a fraction of whom became the Scythes who forced the M173+M89 Hellenes into Greece.

From Indo-Iranian Sanskrit then evolved.

After this the Muslims attacked Asia which forced the Slavs into the Balkans in 600 AD merging with the Germanics who had reached the Balkans by 200 BC. The Slavs then changed their language change to became part of the Slavo-Germanic group. Eventually with Byzantine help they conquered the Muslims in Asia probably in 800 AD and took Russia.

[wvwvw]

The Chinese are descended from the same M09 linage as the Iberiain-Slavs and Hunza-Dravidians. All of these have absolutely no direct relation to the Mongols who are a completely different linage (RPSY/M216) which is the same as that of the Aboriginals and Eskimos who were in Asia before anyone else.

The fact is that the Chinese chose to stay separate from other tribes and so evolved into a sub linage, as did the Hunza-Dravidians, Iberians and Slavs.

There is an overlap of three separate lineages in India M89, M17 and M09 (excluding M173) which explains the cast system very well and gives us the precise date when the main body of the Slavs who did not mix with the Dravidians who were living in Afghanistan (2000 BC). It also tells us that the main Slav body were out of Afghanistan by 1400 BC when the M89 linage conquered India.

The M17 linage is a descendent of M173 which has a frequency of something like 98% in Basques. Since the Basques were an Isolated population it is obvious that Basque was the original language of all the entire M173 linage, unless of course you wish to postulate that the Basques were all speechless until 3,000 years ago which is highly unlikely. You will also probably find that Basque is closest to the Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric language group, since it is defiantly not indo-European which is part of the Greco-Phoenician super language group.

[wvwvw]

The fact is that 50% of the population of Central Asia (which is Altaic) carries the M17 Slavic marker as does 1/3 of the population of Northern India which spoke Dravidian up until 1400 BC when it was conquered by Dionysus' Greeks and the indo-European Hittite-Iranians.

The Slavs were not part of the Indo-European language group but part of the Basque-Sumerian-Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric super group. The Finns who are part of this language group are also part of the same super genetic linage as the Slavs.

ALL of the speakers of the Basque-Sumerian-Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric super language are part of the M09 genetic linage, Chinese (M09-M174/241), Dravidians, Hunza, Turks, (M09), Finns (M09-TAT), Iberians, Slavs (M09-M45/74-M173 & M17) and finally Native Americans (M09-M45/74).

Since ALL of the other members of the M09 lineage speak a Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric language it is blatantly obvious that the Slavs and Iberians must have been part of that language group also since all of these people evolved in Asia at the same time from the same single ancestor 20,000 years ago. They cannot have all been mute until 3000 years ago. They must have communicated by speaking the same language as their fathers and the Basque-Sumerian-Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric super language is the best candidate for that language.

Since the Celts were part of the Iberian M173 linage they cannot have spoken and indo-European language until 5000 years ago when they came into contact with the Pelasgian Greek Minoans who were of mixed M89 and YAP linage and spoke Greek.

The Germanics were probably the first to split from the Greco-Phoenician super group in Anatolia at about the time that the M170 linage diverged from M89, 13,000 years ago and migrated to Circaria. The Anatolians and Pelasgians split from the group about 10,000 years ago when one group of Pelasgians (YAP linage) migrated across the Mediterranean coastline to Cyprus and Greece and spread agriculture where they went and the other founded the Egyptian civilisation.

5000 years ago the Pelasgians and one group of Anatolians combined forces to form the Minoan Greek civilisation which spread the Greek language to the Italo-Celts and Hellenes in the north. 3000 years ago the Hellenes migrated south with the Minoans.

Of the remainder of the Anatolians one group went on to become Hittites, and another the Iranians about 5000 years ago. Both groups were of the same M89 linage and the Minoans.

20,000 years ago was the time when the Assyro-Babylonian Acadian language group diverged from the Greco-Phoenician super group. These people were from another M89 linage different from the Anatolian linage.

(Anatolia in the context of this discussion includes all of Syria and Palestine, which were together known as Asia to the Greeks)

[Dick]

< I-M170 STRONK. WHERE IS R1ETHEL AND HIS GOONS

[wvwvw]

Humans were capable of speech 135,000 years ago which is when language evolved. Those that came to Asia 30,000 years ago, the M09 linage obviously had a common ancestral language which the used to communicate.

20,000 years ago the Chinese linage split from the main M09 linage and went into isolation, as did the Finnic, Hunza and other lineages again because of population isolation.

Since the Chinese language is part of the Altaic-Ugric group as is Finnish and due to the fact that the Chinese are 99% from just one linage it is obvious to even an ignoramus that the ONLY way that these languages could be related is if the ancestors of the Chinese and Finns spoke the same language, i.e. the M09's all spoke the same language at least 20,000 years ago, since NO racial mixing occurred in China and NO Chinese linage is found mixed with the Dravidians or Finnns.

Since this is the case for the two furthest M09 lineages separated by thousands of miles then it must also be true for all the other M09 lineages which evolved in Asia, the Hunza-Dravidians and the Iberian-Slavs. All were part of the Basque-Dravidian-Sumerian-Altaic-Ugric super language group 20,000 years ago. Even the American Indians who are also M09's ARE Altaic-Ugric speakers.

A similar scenario applies to the people of the Middle East, Anatolia and Europe. 20,000 ago all of these people were part of the Greco-Phoenician super language group. All of the ancient writers were fully aware of this fact.

[Dick]

RAINE ARE YOU HUNGRY YET

[Crn Volk]

RAINE ARE YOU HUNGRY YET

She is clearly flirting with you bro

[Dick]

She is clearly flirting with you bro

I MADE ALOT OF SANDWICHES FOR HER. RAINE ANSWER ME NA0. ARE U HUNGRY

[Wrong]

IN YAMNAYA WE TRUST

[wvwvw]

The population of Europe is made of up 10 male and 7 female DNA lineages which all evolved SEPARATELY and in ISOLATION and NEVER came into contact with each other until the period of recorded history. The two main European parent DNA lineages M173 and M89 are separated by 80,000 years. The reason for a common language is because the words were introduced by the people who made the inventions such as the first agricultural settlers who came to Europe in 10,000 years ago who were of the M89 sub lineages M172 who became the Anatolians (Hittites), Minoan Greeks and Persians and M170 who became the Germanics.

Those that did not have agriculture copied the words from those people but the common language of M172 and M170 split 80,000 years ago otherwise they could not have spoken the same linage since this is when these people separated since there is NOT A TRACE of M170 in Persia. Another completely DIFFERENT European langue evolved from the people of the M173 linage 30,000 years ago and this split into Iberian-Italo-Celtic and Slavic when half the M173 settled in Iberia and the reset settle in the Ukraine and evolved into M17. The facts show that the Indo-European language is in fact TWO languages that merged together, one of which came from Asia with the M173 tribes and the other from the middle east and the Balkans with the M89 tribes.

The pre-historic Greeks were in Greece 50,000 years ago. The Greek "Ursula" DNA was there 30.000 before the Iberian Helena. The only other major migrations into Greece were 20,000 years ago by "Helena" and
10,000 years ago by "Jasmine". After this the Greeks migrated outwards.

[wvwvw]

I MADE ALOT OF SANDWICHES FOR HER. RAINE ANSWER ME NA0. ARE U HUNGRY

https://media3.giphy.com/media/cPYdb6VLE540U/200_s.gif

[Dick]

https://media3.giphy.com/media/cPYdb6VLE540U/200_s.gif
OMFG THIS IS THE FIRST TIME YOU EVER QUOTED ME....IM IN LOVE

:loveheart:

[Crn Volk]

OMFG THIS IS THE FIRST TIME YOU EVER QUOTED ME....IM IN LOVE

:loveheart:

Be gentle bro....nah fuck it...

[Dick]

Be gentle bro....nah fuck it...

SHE JUST THUMBED UP TOO. I FEEL LIKE A 14 YO GIRL AT A JUSTIN BIEBER CONCERT RIGHT NOW. :lotsoflove:

[wvwvw]

Slavs are of the M09 M17 Y-Chromosome DNA linage and that linage evolve in Asia and that is where it is still concreted. The speakers of the Greco-Phoenician language originated from the M89 DNA linage which does not cart the M09 mutation and this originated in Syria-Anatolia 30,000 years ago, and the YAP M35 linage which originated in northern Greece 45,000 years ago along with Ursula.

The Germanic tribes are of the M89 M170 linage which originated in Circaria
20,000 years ago and none of these tribes had and contact with an Slavs untill 600 BC becuece no significant amount of Slavic DNA can be found in the UK populations or that of France, Germany or Finland at all. These places were not populated by Germanic tribes until the first century AD therefore there is no evidece of Slavic marker.

The current population of the Balkans is almost 50/50 Slav-Germanic M17-M170
linage apart from Hungary which is over 2/3 M17 and speak and Altaic-Ugric language and Croatia which is 60% M170 it is obvious that the Slavs trickled into the Balkans at around 600 AD and their original language was replace by a Germanic dialect which became Slavonic except for the people of Hungary which due to the Slavs being in the majority kept their original Altaic-Ugric language intact.

Since the current population of Sicily which was a Greece colony contains NO
M170 Germanic markers whosoever it is also obvious that there were NO Germanic tribes anywhere near Greece until after 200 BC which is when the Greece colonisation of Sicily ended.

Since NO Germanic DNA was present in Greece, Anatolia or Iran before 200 BC
 either the European language split from Greco-Phoenician 20,000 years ago
and was spoken by the Greeks, Hittites, Iranians and Germanics at that time,
or the Germanic continued to speak Greco-Phoenician until 200 BC when they
came to the Balkans and picked up Greek from the Greeks, Illyrians, Paonians 
and Thracians who were composed at this time of M89, M35 and M173 lineages
in equal ratios. This would suggest that the Germanics also came in
trickles.

[wvwvw]

The M173 linage is also an M09 sub linage which evolved in Asia and is
related directly to that of the Slavs M17 and the Native Americans. The M173 left Asia 20,000 years ago after the Native Americans had already
migrated towards America and before the M17 linage evolved. It is therefore
 obvious that since the Basques are over 90% composed of this linage that
these people which Include the Iberians and Italo-Celts were not European
 language speakers but part of the Basque-Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric super
language group since all other M09 linages, Chinese, Hunza, Dravidians, and
Native American are Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric speakers.

According to Roman records the Iberians were not European language speakers
 but lost their original language which was replaced by Latin. Similarly by
 their own testimony the Romans learned their language from the Greeks thus
 the most likely expalantion is that in 5000 BC the Italo-Celts migrated from
 Iberia to the Balkans and learned to speak Pelasgian Greek from the Minoans
 by 3000 BC when the Minoans made themselves the masters of all of Europe.

Not only is it statistically impossible but there are no spare DNA lineages
 which could possible have been the progenitors of an alleged PIE language. M89 and M35 are the ONLY DNA lineages which could possibly be the source of
 a European mother language. Thus there were NO proto-indo-Europeans.

Half of the population of Central Asia caries the M17 marker which is common to all Slavs, but the Central Asian groups that have this marker are ALL
Altaic-Ugric speakers. M17 is an M09 sub-linage related to those of the
Native Americans and Chinese both of which are Altaic-Ugric speakers. The
 Chinese were isolated from ALL other tribes 20,000 years ago and the Native
Americans not long after, therefore Altaic-Ugric must have already been in
existence before this time.

Since M17 is a sub linage of M173 which is a sub linage of M45/74, the same
linage as the Native Americans, and since M17 did not evolve until 20,000
years ago, ALL M45/74 including M173 and M17 must have been Altaic-Ugric
 Speakers 20,000 years ago. The fact that through over 10,000 years of
 complete isolation the Native Americans are still Altaic-Ugric speakers
 proves it.

[wvwvw]

Modern day Slavonic then is a Germanic sub group. It did not exist as a language until between 100 and 600 BC when the M170 linage Germanics reached the Baltic's and the Slavs reached the Balkans. 30% of the people of northern Russia are of the M170 linage against 40% of the M17 linage thus it is plausible that the Germanics conquered the land and forced their language on the earlier Altaic-Ugric speakers. The fact that M173 is not present in this population would indicate that the Germanics were already European language speakers when the M170 linage evolved 20,000 years ago.

There is no such language as Indo-European and never was. If Indo-European existed as a root language then all of its words should derive from one word alone. Since we cannot find this one word it is blatantly obvious that the words you call Indo-European were introduced from a dozen of more independent languages that were spoken in Europe and Mesopotamia.

The PIE theory is just wishfull thinking. In reality four common European languages began simultaneously among 4 separate tribal groups. The Greco-Phoenican super language group was by far the greatest contributor to the language by over 70%. The Iberian-Italo-Celts contributed almost nothing and lost their original language Basque altogether. The Germanics contributed 20% of the language and the Slavs about 10%. This analysis is based on the differences and similarities between Ancient Greek and Modern Greek which was influenced by the Germanic and Slavic invasions of the Balkans.

The European language evolved among people from the M172 DNA lineage who came from Anatolia and who combined with members of the M35 DNA linage and migrated to Palestine and Greece. The root language was Greco-Phoenician. This stands to reason since these were the people who brought Agriculture to Europe and hence the only
source for the Agriculture terminology which would have made up over 70% of the original language.

The Phaistos Disc which is dated to 1800-1600 BC is written in Proto-Ionian Greek which makes GREEK ther earliest recorded European language anywhere in the world.

2200 BC is way too early for Indo-Iranian languages to have differentiated
from Greek and Hittite. The differentiation must have happened in 5000 BC at
 the latest and that means that the Iranians must have already been in Persia
and the Hittites in Anatolia at this time, meaning also that the Greeks must
 also have been in Greece.

[Dick]

https://j.gifs.com/31AqJR.gif

[Wrong]

Raine's sexy voice goes missing @*********

[wvwvw]

The Archaeology shows that the first cites were built in eastern Anatolia
 20,000 years ago and DNA shows that 10,000 years ago framers crossed over
 into Europe from Egypt and Palestine and according to the archaeology were 
in to Cyprus 10,000 years ago.

These city dwellers and framers were not mute. They had a
language of their own and that language was Greek.

All the terms used in farming, city building and kingship would have come
form City Dwellers NOT nomads. How could a nomad who had never seen bread
 before have a word for bread. How could they have a word for vase when they
 made no vases. How could they have a word for cat when they had never 
domesticated a cat.

All of the European words concerning agriculture came form the Greco-Phoenician M35 and M172 lineages when the Cretan Palace Civilisation conquered all of Europe and even Egypt form 1800 until 1500 BC.
For example the Greek word for cat is Gata. All the European words for Cat derive from the Greek word Gata since it was in Cyprus that cat was first domesticated.

Oldest Known Pet Cat? 9,500-Year-Old Burial Found. This new find, from the Neolithic village of Shillourokambos, predates early Egyptian art depicting cats by 4,000 years or more.
http://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2004/04/0408_040408_oldestpetcat.html

How could the non-existent proto-indo-Europeans have had a word form an animal the had never even san until the Greeks introduced them from Crete where they are depicted in palace murals.

J. Faucounau among others have proven that Linear A is written in Aeolic Greek and some inscriptions are even written in Ionic Greek. In fact anyone who can speak modern Greek can deduce that almost every Linear A word has a cognate in MODERN Greek. Further more the modern Greek cognates of Linear A words are closer to the Linear A words than the ancient Greek words these modern words are said to have come from. In other words modern Greek evolved from the language spoken by the people who used Linear A and this completely undermine PIE theory altogether. Linear A was common Greek. ALL the European words that have cognates in Greek evolved directly from Greek and those that don't belong to an non-Greek language.

If the PIE was speared by colonial conquest then the ONLY sign of any civilisation that was capable of doing both was the MINOAN GREEKS. There is NO genetic linage appart from M172 and M35 that appears in ALL European speaking postulations. M172 is the most predominate linage of the two.

Unlike Kurgans the Minoans left inscriptions and massive palaces behind and these all show that the Minoan language. Indo-European is a dialect of Greek which is a dialect of Greco-Phoenician. PIE is a projection of what a common language would be if all the common words in the languages of Europe came from own root. Noone has yet proven that they could not have originated separately from hundreds of diffluent sources in different places and were the precipitated to neighbouring tribes simultaneously.

For example the man who invented the Wheel could have lived in Greece and said What shall I call this. He then decided to call is a Troho from which comes the English word Truck. Somewhere else say in India someone invented the Plough and decided to call it a Plough or something and thus the word Plough was passed on from place to place.

[Dick]

RAINE YOU WANNA RING NOW OR WHAT




http://i68.tinypic.com/72g9yo.jpg

[Rethel]

< I-M170 STRONK. WHERE IS R1ETHEL AND HIS GOONS

Rethel tries to not respond to stupidity...

Noone never heard in Heimat about such stupidity
as I-M170=German, neither in very liberal Scandia...

True tacitian Germanian is only R1. Das ist alles.
All I-men are of pre-Germanic pedegree, not IE.

[Dick]

Rethel tries to not respond to stupidity...

Noone never heard in Heimat about such stupidity
as I-M170=German, neither in very liberal Scandia...

True tacitian Germanian is only R1. Das ist alles.
All I-men are of pre-Germanic pedegree, not IE.

HAHAHAH R1AINE GOT YOU MAD

[Rethel]

HAHAHAH R1AINE GOT YOU MAD

Raine should be tried for treason.

http://us.123rf.com/450wm/demian1975/demian19751410/demian1975141000555/32367055-suicide-simulation-young-caucasian-hanged-woman.jpg

[Dick]

Raine should be tried for treason.

STOP QUOTING ME SCRAWNY POLLOCK FAGGOT THAT HAS A VOICE LIKE KERMIT THE FROG. QUOTE R1AINE AND REFUTE HER CLAIMS

[wvwvw]

Rethel tries to not respond to stupidity...

Noone never heard in Heimat about such stupidity
as I-M170=German, neither in very liberal Scandia...

True tacitian Germanian is only R1. Das ist alles.
All I-men are of pre-Germanic pedegree, not IE.

M170 is the dominant linage in blonde Germanic populations. It is the linage common to all place where there are blonds.

The Germans were M170 linage and more closely related to the people of the Middle East than to the Europeans they conquered who were more closely related to the Indians, Chinese and Native Americans who are all M9 linage whereas the German paternal tribe like those of the Middle East does not contain the M9 mutation.

The ancient Greeks bleached their hair blond with lemon juice. Any inherited blondness was already in Greece more than 7000 years ago with the M170 P37 HgI1b linage since that's how long it takes to form a sub linage, and was probably recessive several millennia before classical times.

[jingorex]

I MADE ALOT OF SANDWICHES FOR HER. RAINE ANSWER ME NA0. ARE U HUNGRY

are you trying to break my fucking heart again?

[Rethel]

QUOTE R1AINE AND REFUTE HER CLAIMS

These are fairy tales from around 2003. All outdated and dissprooved long ago.

[Rethel]

M170 is the dominant linage in blonde Germanic populations. It is the linage common to all place where there are blonds. Blondness derives from M170. :nod:

1. "I" is very popular on the Balkans and southern Ukraine. If they are blondes and Germanic peoples, then you are a daltonist and ignorant.
2. "I" was found everywhere among Oldeuropeans in Western and Northern Europe - and coincidently they all were swarthy... not blondes at all.
3. "I" among Germanic peoples it is a minority. In average R1 is 62% among all Germanians... with rest of IE women it is 80%.
4. "I" among germanic peoples it is only 1/5 in average and bearers of that hg contain only 10% of european germanic population.

So, what are you takling about? It is nonsense what you claim :picard2:

[wvwvw]

The Germans were blonds whereas the people they conquered were dark haired. The DNA says there were 3 nodes of Germanic populations. One in Croatia, one in Germany and one in Scandinavia. The one in Scandinavia is the strongest. The spread of M170 is from Croatia to the whole of the Slavic Balkans. Hence Slavic was a derivative of Germanic and Germanic from Germanic-Greek-Thracian-Phrygian and a considerable amount of German words come from Phoenician according to Germanic linguists.

People born into the same family and tire speak the langue of their parents not that of another tribe that lives thousands of miles away and split form then thousands of years earlier. Linguists must either fit in with the scientifically proven evolution of man from his ancestors and their migrations or else it cannot be considered credible. PIE was never compatible with the archaeological evidence for the movement of civilisation and now it has been completely demolished by the DNA evidence.

Only Greek, Germanic, Hittite, Iranian and Phoenician could have evolved from a common ancestor since they are all M89 direct derivative lineages which do not carry the M9 marker. Iberian and Slavic are M9 lineages so cannot be related to the other unless you go back 80,000 years and before that both must be linked to Chinese, Finnic and Native American.

At about the time of Ptolemy Germanic M170 tribes were conquering the Russian Steppes and that is the reason the original Slavic language which was a form of Altaic like the M17 linage White Huns of Hungarians changed its syntax.

The DNA evidence shows that the M172 and M170 lineages split from the M89 linage 80,000 years ago therefore the German and Greco-Hittite-Iranian must have split from Phoenician at the same time. In fact there is every likelihood that the so-called Semitic elements of Phoenicians were introduced into it by the M35 linage 20,000 years ago migrating into Mesopotamia and splitting the Greek, Hittite, Germanic, and Iranian populations apart.

[wvwvw]

The Pelsasgian Greeks and Phoenicians are part of the YAP M35 linage. They are closely related to 1/3 of the Japanese population.

It is a scientific fact that there are more Greek cognates in the language of the Native Americans and the Japanese than with any other European language. International experts have pointed out the cognates.

40% of the Japanese population is descended from the M174 lineage which is a derivative of M1 and therefore a cousin of M35 which made up 1/3 of the ancient Greek population. This explains the many Japanese Greek cognates which came from a common M1 language 80,000 or 60,000 years ago.

Since 1/3 of the ancient Greek population of Mycenaean times was M173 which is a derivative of M45 which is the linage of the Native Americans it is obvious that the Greek cognates in that language came form a common M45 root language 40,000 years ago.

."..the theory that the Iroquoian language of North America is somehow related to Greek goes back to almost the beginning of the 18th century with Pere Joseph-Francois Lafitau, a Jesuit missionary to the Iroquois. Lafitau believed the Iroquois to be the descendants of the Lycians, based in part of similarities in customs and even proposed etymologies for Greek words based on Iroquoian languages. Rev. J. A. Cuoq, studying Iroquois almost two centuries later, was also struck by the resemblance of Iroquoian languages to Greek.

It is interesting that there appears to be convergent evolution between Modern Greek and North American languages. polysynthesis in Modern Greek and how it compares to Iroquoian languages.

http://books.google.gr/books?id=qpvJ...0greek&f=false

There were NO SUCH THINGS as Indo-Europeans. The fact that there were two different migrations at different times of different peoples proves that.

All the Germanic and Anatolian tribes are middle easterners. The Slavs and Ibero-Celtics are asiatics.

The only logical conclusion is that there were TWO mother languages in Europe both created 80,000 years ago which merged to different degrees in different areas 10,000 years ago when the first agricultural settlers came. At the same time African migrants came to the middle east and their language merged with one of the European component languages in Mesopotamia to create Akkadian.

[Peterski]

< I-M170 STRONK. WHERE IS R1ETHEL AND HIS GOONS


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ViFlT52gs4s

https://media.giphy.com/media/xWD8rjxvinKoM/giphy.gif

I-M170 were still living in tents when R-M173 already had many fortified towns, for example:

Date of foundation : site (culture):

2,300 BC : Bruszczewo (Unetice)
1,900 BC : Mycenae (Mycenaean)
1,700 BC : Arkaim (Sintashta)
1,650 BC : Trzcinica (Füzesabony)
1,600 BC : Pylos (Mycenaean)

[wvwvw]

The population of Europe is made up of 10 independent DNA lineages and half of these lineages belong to the M9 sub-group and the others to the M89 main body which means they split from a common population from the Middle East 80,000 years ago and no later. Germanic and Hittite have the same root as Phoenician minus all the African cognates. Slavic and Iberian have the same root as Altaic and Chinese.

There is no meaningful trace of the Germanic M170 linage in Anatolia therefore the M89 group that became M170 must have migrated out of Anatolia over 30,000 years ago. This means that proto-Germanic and Hittite split up over 30,000 years ago. Also there is no trace of the African M35 linage in Germany therefore there cannot have been any mixed population of M89 and M35 at that time. The M35 linage can only have left Africa 10,000 years ago and they were responsible for the languages of Mesopotamia becoming "Semitic". In fact every term in linguistics which groups together languages needs to be redefined since "Semitic" is a hybrid M89+M35 or M172+M35 language since M35 is the common element and so-called indo-European is a hybrid M89-M173 language.

M173 was already established in Iberia at least 17,000 years ago. At the sae time M173 evolved into M17 in the Ukraine therefore proto-Slavic split form proto-Iberian at this time. 40,000 years ago proto-Iberian needs to have split from proto-Native American M45.

The M173 ycDNA linage came to Iberia 17,000 years ago. At the same time as the Helena mtDNA linage. 1/3 of the people of ancient Greece were their descendents.

DNA research proves there was NO mixing of any European lineages until historical times. It takes approximately 6000 years for a sublineage to evolve and since the primary linage of Sardinians M26 is a derivative of the Germanic M170 linage the main M170 population cannot have been contaminated by anyone else for 6000 years ago when it evolved therefore there is no basis for PIE evolving in the Balkans or the Kurgan Home Word wherever that is 7000 years ago since this would require contamination of the M170 paternal line.

[Dick]

The population of Europe is made up of 10 independent DNA lineages and half of these lineages belong to the M9 sub-group and the others to the M89 main body which means they split from a common population from the Middle East 80,000 years ago and no later. Germanic and Hittite have the same root as Phoenician minus all the African cognates. Slavic and Iberian have the same root as Altaic and Chinese.

There is no meaningful trace of the Germanic M170 linage in Anatolia therefore the M89 group that became M170 must have migrated out of Anatolia over 30,000 years ago. This means that proto-Germanic and Hittite split up over 30,000 years ago. Also there is no trace of the African M35 linage in Germany therefore there cannot have been any mixed population of M89 and M35 at that time. The M35 linage can only have left Africa 10,000 years ago and they were responsible for the languages of Mesopotamia becoming "Semitic". In fact every term in linguistics which groups together languages needs to be redefined since "Semitic" is a hybrid M89+M35 or M172+M35 language since M35 is the common element and so-called indo-European is a hybrid M89-M173 language.

M173 was already established in Iberia at least 17,000 years ago. At the sae time M173 evolved into M17 in the Ukraine therefore proto-Slavic split form proto-Iberian at this time. 40,000 years ago proto-Iberian needs to have split from proto-Native American M45.

The M173 ycDNA linage came to Iberia 17,000 years ago. At the same time as the Helena mtDNA linage. 1/3 of the people of ancient Greece were their descendents.

DNA research proves there was NO mixing of any European lineages until historical times. It takes approximately 6000 years for a sublineage to evolve and since the primary linage of Sardinians M26 is a derivative of the Germanic M170 linage the main M170 population cannot have been contaminated by anyone else for 6000 years ago when it evolved therefore there is no basis for PIE evolving in the Balkans or the Kurgan Home Word wherever that is 7000 years ago since this would require contamination of the M170 paternal line.

THIS ALL MAKES SENSE MY GR1EK WIFEY

[Rethel]

2,300 BC : Bruszczewo (Unetice)
1,900 BC : Mycenae (Mycenaean)
1,700 BC : Arkaim (Sintashta)
1,650 BC : Trzcinica (Füzesabony)
1,600 BC : Pylos (Mycenaean)

Geographically:

2,300 BC : Bruszczewo (Unetice) western POLAND (https://www.google.pl/maps/place/Bruszczewo/@52.1641659,16.7444632,8z/data=!4m5!3m4!1s0x4705ba358ffbcf77:0x6deb0028f6176 686!8m2!3d52.0069717!4d16.5617298)
1,900 BC : Mycenae (Mycenaean) central GREECE (https://www.google.pl/maps/place/Mykeny/@37.931727,22.7406832,9z/data=!4m5!3m4!1s0x0:0x62a883f6112f71f7!8m2!3d37.73 08631!4d22.7561327)
1,700 BC : Arkaim (Sintashta) RUSSIA, URAL (https://www.google.pl/maps/place/%D0%9C%D1%83%D0%B7%D0%B5%D0%B9+%D0%BF%D1%80%D0%B8% D1%80%D0%BE%D0%B4%D1%8B+%D0%B8+%D1%87%D0%B5%D0%BB% D0%BE%D0%B2%D0%B5%D0%BA%D0%B0+%22%D0%90%D1%80%D0%B A%D0%B0%D0%B8%D0%BC%22/@52.6637009,59.4482051,11.25z/data=!4m8!1m2!2m1!1z0JDRgNC60LDQuNC8!3m4!1s0x0:0x7 302f7c7d8fd0dd9!8m2!3d52.6430634!4d59.5404053)
1,650 BC : Trzcinica (Füzesabony) southern POLAND (https://www.google.pl/maps/place/Trzcinica/@49.7379756,21.4008611,14z/data=!3m1!4b1!4m5!3m4!1s0x473db6bc94ccc993:0x21f5b 878183a8f94!8m2!3d49.7426857!4d21.4163192) called CARPATHIAN TROY (https://pl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Skansen_Archeologiczny_%E2%80%9EKarpacka_Troja%E2% 80%9D_w_Trzcinicy#/media/File:Karpacka_Troja.JPG)
1,600 BC : Pylos (Mycenaean) southern GREECE (https://www.google.pl/maps/place/Pylos,+Grecja/@36.9119943,21.6893267,15z/data=!3m1!4b1!4m5!3m4!1s0x136172c4b04bba2d:0x500bd 2ce2ba47c0!8m2!3d36.9130756!4d21.6963472)


Winter visualisation of Arkaim:

https://wiaraprzyrodzona.files.wordpress.com/2015/04/arkajama-arkaim.jpg?w=869

[Peterski]

Winter visualisation of Arkaim:

https://wiaraprzyrodzona.files.wordpress.com/2015/04/arkajama-arkaim.jpg?w=869

Wow, looks great, thanks!

[Ülev]

go back please, R to asian Akraim, I to J brothers in Arabian Peninsula

[Peterski]

There were NO SUCH THINGS as Indo-Europeans.

Muahahahaha. Stop lying. We were, we are, and we will always be:


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DpbjquTQT98

http://s11.postimg.org/dipwpefb7/races.png

[wvwvw]

Muahahahaha. Stop lying. We were, we are, and we will always be:


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DpbjquTQT98

http://s11.postimg.org/dipwpefb7/races.png

I am referring to the language family.

[wvwvw]

The Indo-European language was direct descendent of WRITTEN GREEK (over 70% of it), WRITTEN MAEONIAN and WRITTEN HITTITE and WRITTEN IRANIAN and developed though the mutual interaction of these cultures !

Greek was passed on the other European cultures by use of writing and these culture modified Greek to replace their original languages. The proof of this is the fact that all Europeans use the GREEK ALPHABET !

The indo-European language was developed by the people who lived in Greece, Anatolia and Iraq who were of the M172 and M35 linages. These were the first people to develop writing and civilisation and the first to export writing to other people they came into contact with.

Latin came about when the Tyrrhenians settled in Italy followed by Mycenaean Greeks.

Sanskrit came about when the Persians invaded India.

Slavic came about when the Slavs invade the Balkans and mixed with earlier Germanic tribes.

Germanic came about when Germanic tribes invaded the Balkans and mixed with the Thracians. German is a dialect of Greek down to it very 
basics. The Germans were not speaking German until about 350 AD. They had a limited vocabulary since they were nomadic hunter gatherers. They were nomads who had no cities and no states. Where was the Germanic Homer. Where was their Plato and Aristotle 
and their Pindar, and Aristophanes and Euripides and Sophocles and Aesshlesu 
and their Anaxagoras and Parmenides. The Germanic tribes had no need for a 
complex langue since they had no idea of what to express in it. So all the IE terms related to agriculture, philosophy, science and so on, entered IE via Greeks. 90% of the words in the Gothic bible are direct imports 
from Greek.

The Greeks first speaed their 
language throught Europeas through their ocntold of the sea with Minoans, then Myceaneans, Classical Greeks and Byzantines. That is why 
everyone adopted Greek names for the numbers so that everyone one would know 
exactly home much of each commodity they were buying or selling.

[Danaan]

Rethel tries to not respond to stupidity...

Noone never heard in Heimat about such stupidity
as I-M170=German, neither in very liberal Scandia...

True tacitian Germanian is only R1. Das ist alles.
All I-men are of pre-Germanic pedegree, not IE.

The Hun-Basque-Dravidian R1 has nothing to do with the noble authentically Germanic I-M170, you Hun-Basque-Dravidian.

[Ülev]

as I already told - R1 -the Huns of Europe, lol, be proud, do not deny

[wvwvw]

Because Greeks had not one, but several global Empires their language had a big impact on both European and Asiatic languages.

Τhe world famous Jewish linguist Joseph Isaak Yahuda claims that both Hebrew and Arabic are heavily influenced by Greek. In his book HEBREW IS GREEK, he claims:

"Overwhelming evidence proves conclusively that Biblical Hebrew is camouflaged Greek in grammar as well as vocabulary so...the difference between them is a matter of pronunciation. So much that Hebrew cannot be properly understood except through Greek."

[Norb]

its R1a and R1b

[Wrong]

its R1a and R1b
This.

One I1 man was incorporated in them later, in the early Iron Age.

[Jana]

I1 took part in Germanic ethnogenesis (with R1b/R1a), so yes.

[Dick]

This.

One I1 man was incorporated in them later, in the early Iron Age.
And then you woke up.


I1 took part in Germanic ethnogenesis (with R1b/R1a), so yes.
Yup which is why 40% of Germanic Language is of non indo European origin