Haplogroup I2 in Balkans , Paleobalkanic or Slavic ??? POLL

[DarknessWin]

????????

http://www.opanak.net/wp-content/uploads/2016/11/haplogr423.png

[Dick]

Not this again.

[rein]

Its Greek.

[DarknessWin]

Its total absence from Poland , Eupedia say that it is the haplogroup of old balkan tribes like Thracians

[Dick]

Its total absence from Poland , Eupedia say that it is the haplogroup of old balkan tribes like Thracians

Are you really I2?

[Ülev]

different than R1a folk, that's for sure

[Dick]

different than R1a folk, that's for sure

How so?

[Robocop]

I think we came from Atlantis :D, not only I2 but entire Y-DNA I family of haplogroups, we are Atlanteans who settled in Europe after Atlantis sank into the ocean.

So in another words; I2c, I2a1b, I2a, I1, I2a2 are ... well... superior people.

Greets

[War Chef]

gee, i dunno really

[Bosniensis]

Western Roman Empire fell in 480 A.D in hands of Julius Nepos (Dalmatian Illyrian) and I2 coincide with % of that Area. Just 100 years before arrival of Slavs (Scythians)

https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/9/9e/Marcellinus_Dalmatia.jpg/1024px-Marcellinus_Dalmatia.jpg

Did Slavs murdered all Illyrians?

Highly unlikely, they needed people for they themselves were not literate and smart enough to operate cities.

From whom we got on average 50% Balkan, from which haplogroup carrier?

Is it E, G? Highly unlikely, according to dozen Serbian Autosomal results most of them have 50% on average native admixture therefore
a strong Haplogroup carrier had to be mixed. Is it R1a and I2 (one of those two) .. Well I bet on I2 since R1a is obviously Scythian Slavic.

If two strongest South Slavic haplogroups I2 and R1a are Slavic, then which one is Thracian aka Dacian (Romanian) since they
are also I2 and R1a?

Again Thracians and Illyrians were I2

Sources?

Hundreds!

Demetrios Chalcondyles said: Serbians are the oldest people on Balkans! (but also called them Illyrians or Thraco-Illyrians)

Stephen Dušan the Mighty: In "Dušanov Zakonik" Dushans Law said: Our Empire is continuation of the Empire of Constantine (Western Roman Empire) -> Clearly he was aware of his Balkan origin.

Other source: That language on Danube is Scythian in Origin (Meaning Illyrians have been assimilated) also explains 50/50 admixture.

Jovan Deretić, pseudo-historian without doubt, but as many extreme historians even they have sometimes a good theory, here he explains so called Slavic Migrations on Balkans:


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=MlQf650F1_8

[Pribislav]

I2a1b2a1 (I-CTS10228) is clearly Slavic.

I2a1b2a1 is vast majority of total Balkan I2.

[Bosniensis]

I2a1b2a1 (I-CTS10228) is clearly Slavic.

From which people I2 people inherited Pre-Slavic Autosomal?

I've seen 20 Serbian FTDNA results, most of them have 50% Native Balkan autosomal?

Is it from Greeks? Italians? Albanians?

If we got that Autosomal admixture from these people they must live among us... Which haplogroup is theirs?

R1a is Slavic
I2 is NOT.

The fact I2 came from North doesn't mean it's Slavic.. maybe it was only Linguistically Slavic but it's impossible that E1b or G or any other haplogroup beside I2
gave South Slavs Greek/Albanian Autosomal.

[Dick]

I2a1b2a1 (I-CTS10228) is clearly Slavic.


The had bigger balls than other Slavs to attack Rome I guess. Inb4 Dr. Bosniensis says he has big balls.

[Pribislav]

@ Bosniensis

Illyrians and Thracians = Slavs, end of story! :)

[Bosniensis]

The had bigger balls than other Slavs to attack Rome I guess. Inb4 Dr. Bosniensis says he has big balls.

The fact that leaders of Serbs and Croats had been invited to the court of Emperor Basil II clearly tells you they haven't massacred Illyrians end of story.

In 7th century after Roman - Persian wars, Byzantine Army could destroy Croats and Serbs with a blink of an eye, but they did not cause they recognized Serbs and Croats as Illyrian populace predominantly.

[Dick]

The fact that leaders of Serbs and Croats had been invited to the court of Emperor Basil II clearly tells you they haven't massacred Illyrians end of story.

In 7th century after Roman - Persian wars, Byzantine Army could destroy Croats and Serbs with a blink of an eye, but they did not cause they recognized Serbs and Croats as Illyrian populace predominantly.

I meant Slavs before them. there was no written account of Serbs or Croats or whoever massacring Illyrians anyway but they did massacre Avars. It was written.

[Bosniensis]

@ Bosniensis

Illyrians and Thracians = Slavs, end of story! :)

Greek historians who wrote about Russian siege of Constantinople wrote: "Ross, people of Scythian origin" therefore they denounced East Slavic people as Thracians and Illyrians.

Since Russians are R1a predominantly (even today) we can apply the same principle and say: Balkan R1a is Slavic (Scythian) while I2 is (Native).

I know that would be a TABOO subject to create divide between a people, but that's truth and that's how it was.

R1a conquered I2 (Latins) and impossed their own language upon them, states, government etc...

This happened 100%

[Bosniensis]

there was no written account of Serbs or Croats or whoever massacring Illyrians anyway but they did massacre Avars. It was written.

Slavs who imposed their language, government etc .. assimilated people of Balkans, and then later they defended TOGETHER against Avars etc..

That's why you have a "Sveto Pismo" written in Slavo-Illyrian language which is in fact Serbian language.

[Pribislav]

From which people I2 people inherited Pre-Slavic Autosomal?

I've seen 20 Serbian FTDNA results, most of them have 50% Native Balkan autosomal?

Is it from Greeks? Italians? Albanians?

If we got that Autosomal admixture from these people they must live among us... Which haplogroup is theirs?

R1a is Slavic
I2 is NOT.

The fact I2 came from North doesn't mean it's Slavic.. maybe it was only Linguistically Slavic but it's impossible that E1b or G or any other haplogroup beside I2
gave South Slavs Greek/Albanian Autosomal.

If you deny the fact that Illyrians and Thracians were same people as Slavs. You'll go under the sword!:voodoo:


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TjlL-k4bkAU

[Dick]

Greek historians who wrote about Russian siege of Constantinople wrote: "Ross, people of Scythian origin" therefore they denounced East Slavic people as Thracians and Illyrians.

Since Russians are R1a predominantly (even today) we can apply the same principle and say: Balkan R1a is Slavic (Scythian) while I2 is (Native).

I know that would be a TABOO subject to create divide between a people, but that's truth and that's how it was.

R1a conquered I2 (Latins) and impossed their own language upon them, states, government etc...

This happened 100%

Didn't you mention that south Slavs get 70% closeness to the ancient Pannonian sample? Was the ancient Pannonian an Illyrian or what?

[Bosniensis]

Didn't you mention that south Slavs get 70% closeness to the ancient Pannonian sample? Was the ancient Pannonian an Illyrian or what?

Yeah because they mixed extensively.

But Slavic language fully replaced Latin language after 7th century migrations probably.

They were Slavic then Latin and Slavic again.

Well who can explain Kresnik Slavic temple from 200 A.D in Slovenia?

Illyrians were obviously Slavic then Latin and again Slavic through Polish/Ukrainian settlers in 7th century.

[Dick]

Well who can explain Kresnik Slavic temple from 200 A.D in Slovenia?


Wait, what?

So, Venedi=Sloveni/Illyri?

[Bosniensis]

Wait, what?

So, Venedi=Sloveni/Illyri?

Doesn't this Illyrian Shield look like a Symbol of Perun to you?

https://c1.staticflickr.com/6/5525/12287106023_76816518ae_b.jpg

https://encrypted-tbn0.gstatic.com/images?q=tbn:ANd9GcTXJY2VWUzyJ09svhZFlzbesae3r8jV-fRYuR9Da6ktNqYpi5FEsA

[Dick]

Doesn't this Illyrian Shield look like a Symbol of Perun to you?



If it is real then yes.

https://2.bp.blogspot.com/-zIbsrceYz3k/WU2B8RCfx5I/AAAAAAAAJzE/wNHa5Khl0S4AZ7S6DcMvYpkNkOZPPMTbACLcBGAs/s1600/snakes.jpg

[Bosniensis]

If it is real then yes.

https://2.bp.blogspot.com/-zIbsrceYz3k/WU2B8RCfx5I/AAAAAAAAJzE/wNHa5Khl0S4AZ7S6DcMvYpkNkOZPPMTbACLcBGAs/s1600/snakes.jpg

https://farm6.staticflickr.com/5524/9329246079_f4e3ea3c07_b.jpg

http://albanianstudies.weebly.com/uploads/3/4/6/9/3469404/3910164.jpg?337

http://lukeuedasarson.com/IllRec.jpg

http://lukeuedasarson.com/Illyrians.jpg

[Krivich]

I think this is a true haplogroup of Slavs and the Slavs appeared between the Balkans and the Carpathians. This is not my idea. In Russian forums, this is discussed and given even a genetic justification

[DarknessWin]

If you deny the fact that Illyrians and Thracians were same people as Slavs. You'll go under the sword!:voodoo:


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TjlL-k4bkAU

Thracians and Illyrians were pelasgian people close to Greeks.
nothing to do with Slavs

[Bosniensis]

Here is the movie about two most famous Illyrians ever:

1. Diocletian
2. Constantine the Great

Both confirmed Illyrians by many Greek writers.


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=deioHlBslEQ

[DarknessWin]

I think this is a true haplogroup of Slavs and the Slavs appeared between the Balkans and the Carpathians. This is not my idea. In Russian forums, this is discussed and given even a genetic justification

The closer country to Slavs today are Poland and I2 dont even exist there.
I2 is Balkanic and not Slavic , otherwise Poland and Russia must have high I2 too

[Bosniensis]

The closer country to Slavs today are Poland and I2 dont even exist there.
I2 is Balkanic and not Slavic , otherwise Poland and Russia must have high I2 too

Illyrians also wandered and settled, conquered other territories, so they probably went into R1a territories.

I2 also might be Celtic, don't forget that Germans brutally murdered entire cities and villages (cause that was their custom when they conquer territory).

I2 in Poland might be from Gauls who fled East as well.

[Dick]

Here is the movie about two most famous Illyrians ever:

1. Diocletian
2. Constantine the Great

Both confirmed Illyrians by many Greek writers.

There was a female Illyrian sample on gedmatch but it was deleted. Low snps apparently.

[Bosniensis]

There was a female Illyrian sample on gedmatch but it was deleted. Low snps apparently.

Prepare for eternal LIES against Illyrians and destruction of any proofs.

People in Germany, England, USA would never be able to handle such prestige to be given to "dirty Serbs" who are destined to be "slaves" in their eyes.

Whatever is against Western World in archaeological finds shall be hidden or destroyed.

There is no justice for western balkan people.

[Dick]

Prepare for eternal LIES against Illyrians and destruction of any proofs.

People in Germany, England, USA would never be able to handle such prestige to be given to "dirty Serbs" who are destined to be "slaves" in their eyes.

Whatever is against Western World in archaeological finds shall be hidden or destroyed.

There is no justice for western balkan people.

I don't see why low snps would matter since it's something either way, what difference if it was more snps? It was very northeastern.

[Bosniensis]

I don't see why low snps would matter since it's something either way, what difference if it was more snps? It was very northeastern.

Well the simple fact that Illyrian solder had some Pannonian autosomal (even with small number of SNP's) is an evidence they were mixed. But I don't know why would they hide that when they have Roman Historian from Julius Caesar era
who claims: "Illyrians are mixed with Scythians" and "Thracians mixed with Scythians" ... that was obvious cause they were neighbors.

So how could they brainwash us that Albanians are Illyrians (who don't have those results even when compared with low SNP woman).

I've seen that result it was from 300 B.C. if I remember I am not sure.

[Pribislav]

The closer country to Slavs today are Poland and I2 dont even exist there.
I2 is Balkanic and not Slavic , otherwise Poland and Russia must have high I2 too

Do you realize the difference between I2 and I2a1b2a1?

Ethnic Russians have about 12% I2a1b2a1.
In Ukraine I2a1b2a1 is about 21%.
In Belarus I2a1b2a1 is 18%, and 25% in Polesia. Ethno-genesis of proto-Slavs happened in Polesia.
https://i.pinimg.com/originals/7e/eb/8f/7eeb8fb24d99e9e3443b739a52c5a501.png

If I2a1b2a1 is not Slavic than Ukrainians, Belarusians and Russians should have 0% I2a1b2a1.

G2a-L497 is clearly Celtic, archeologically proven. Irish, Breton and Scottish people today have low percentage of G2a-L497.
Today's percentages of haplogroups have nothing to do with their deeps origins.

[Bosniensis]

Do you realize the difference between I2 and I2a1b2a1?

Ethnic Russians have about 12% I2a1b2a1.
In Ukraine I2a1b2a1 is about 21%.
In Belarus I2a1b2a1 is 18%, and 25% in Polesia. Ethno-genesis of proto-Slavs happened in Polesia.
https://i.pinimg.com/originals/7e/eb/8f/7eeb8fb24d99e9e3443b739a52c5a501.png

If I2a1b2a1 is not Slavic than Ukrainians, Belarusians and Russians should have 0% I2a1b2a1.

G2a-L497 is clearly Celtic, archeologically proven. Irish, Breton and Scottish people today have low percentage of G2a-L497.
Today's percentages of haplogroups have nothing to do with their deeps origins.

That map doesn't explain how I2 came from Greece up there?

Do you understand a simple fact that Migrations of all I2 Haplogroups (no matter the mutation) went from Greece to Italy then France, Britain etc...

You and Vlatko keep posting that tiny I2 bubble from Belarus, but have you asked yourself HOW that bubble came there?

It came from Balkans and Greece FFS!

R1 Migrations came from Ural mountains

IJ Migrations from Syria

IJ is Syrian Haplogroup that split into SEMITES and JAPHETIC peoples

[Bosniensis]

Some interesting contribution of Illyrian Slavic topic:

(Ptolemai period from 323 BC to 30 BC)
Toponims on Ptolemaic map such as Ambilici, Latobici, Varciani
are tipical Slavic names in same usage today, child of Ambil is Ambilic, in plural "i" is added as in Ambilici or Latobici. Varciani is also Slavic, child of Varci is Varcian, with i is plural.
Arabisci and Scordisci have tipical SKI extensions.
Bregetiu means bregoviti , breg or brig is hill.
Slavic language was in those times called Illyrian language
for much larger groups of nations then just Illyria.
Dalmatian language became equated with Illyrian in most of the history, up to the 1970 when Pope ascribed Illyrian to South Slavic heritage and language.

https://2.bp.blogspot.com/-HjaN_5ZZS6M/V0tWlOKdMMI/AAAAAAAAMXg/Ech9LtcY_dEH_xGfko7a4ngOM9AMb6zAQCLcB/s1600/Antique%2BPtolemaic%2Bmap%2Bof%2BSwitzerland%252C% 2BBalkans%2Band%2BDalmatia%2Bby%2BS.%2BMunster.%2B first%2Bedition-%2B1540%2B%252Cthis%2Bmap-%2B1542...jpg


Ancient Rhaetia's real name was Rassa or Rassenia, this is how they called themselves.
Rasa means a race of people in Slavic tongue.
What did THEY meant by that name is not known, what is known is that it was real name of Etruscans, it appears again in names of medieval states such as Rashka, Korushka, Rvacka, Rascia and off course Russia and Bjelorussia today.
Considering that Ptolemai map had areas that could have same meaning as a state today or kingdom then it is not claryfied by officials (meaning Amero-British history authorities) why is such large area under one name groupation.
I must add that Amero-British history authorities surely didn't read ancient writers.

https://4.bp.blogspot.com/-CYRUZ_xKLTA/V0tWlDuJRCI/AAAAAAAAMXc/2uoYN93JBDsNGZGHPEjmoB7wOTLE4CWXwCLcB/s1600/Antique%2BPtolemaic%2Bmap%2Bof%2BSwitzerland%252C% 2BBalkans%2Band%2BDalmatia%2Bby%2BS.%2BMunster.%2B first%2Bedition-%2B1540%2B%252Cthis%2Bmap-%2B1542.jpg

More info:

http://fishcalledsanda.blogspot.com/2015/06/dalmatia.html

[Dick]

Some interesting contribution of Illyrian Slavic topic:

(Ptolemai period from 323 BC to 30 BC)
Toponims on Ptolemaic map such as Ambilici, Latobici, Varciani
are tipical Slavic names in same usage today, child of Ambil is Ambilic, in plural "i" is added as in Ambilici or Latobici. Varciani is also Slavic, child of Varci is Varcian, with i is plural.
Arabisci and Scordisci have tipical SKI extensions.
Bregetiu means bregoviti , breg or brig is hill.
Slavic language was in those times called Illyrian language
for much larger groups of nations then just Illyria.
Dalmatian language became equated with Illyrian in most of the history, up to the 1970 when Pope ascribed Illyrian to South Slavic heritage and language.

https://2.bp.blogspot.com/-HjaN_5ZZS6M/V0tWlOKdMMI/AAAAAAAAMXg/Ech9LtcY_dEH_xGfko7a4ngOM9AMb6zAQCLcB/s1600/Antique%2BPtolemaic%2Bmap%2Bof%2BSwitzerland%252C% 2BBalkans%2Band%2BDalmatia%2Bby%2BS.%2BMunster.%2B first%2Bedition-%2B1540%2B%252Cthis%2Bmap-%2B1542...jpg


Ancient Rhaetia's real name was Rassa or Rassenia, this is how they called themselves.
Rasa means a race of people in Slavic tongue.
What did THEY meant by that name is not known, what is known is that it was real name of Etruscans, it appears again in names of medieval states such as Rashka, Korushka, Rvacka, Rascia and off course Russia and Bjelorussia today.
Considering that Ptolemai map had areas that could have same meaning as a state today or kingdom then it is not claryfied by officials (meaning Amero-British history authorities) why is such large area under one name groupation.
I must add that Amero-British history authorities surely didn't read ancient writers.

https://4.bp.blogspot.com/-CYRUZ_xKLTA/V0tWlDuJRCI/AAAAAAAAMXc/2uoYN93JBDsNGZGHPEjmoB7wOTLE4CWXwCLcB/s1600/Antique%2BPtolemaic%2Bmap%2Bof%2BSwitzerland%252C% 2BBalkans%2Band%2BDalmatia%2Bby%2BS.%2BMunster.%2B first%2Bedition-%2B1540%2B%252Cthis%2Bmap-%2B1542.jpg

More info:

http://fishcalledsanda.blogspot.com/2015/06/dalmatia.html

Rassa, Raška, Raczi in hungarian which possibly meant illyrian or thracian?

[Bosniensis]

Rassa, Raška, Raczi in hungarian which possibly meany illyrian or thracian?

Greeks said that Thracians predate them in Europe while Illyrians are described as “Oldest People in Europe” by Demetrius Chalkondlyles so they probably both spoke Balto-Slavic languages and were related to each other.

We can hear that I2 is among the first haplogroups in Europe well guess what we have them as well as Romanians and other Slavs

So we can’t observe history from Greek standpoint for they came later

Also Thracian means Rascian and other variants of the same word.

Watch the video I PP you ;)


Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

[DarknessWin]

Do you realize the difference between I2 and I2a1b2a1?

Ethnic Russians have about 12% I2a1b2a1.
In Ukraine I2a1b2a1 is about 21%.
In Belarus I2a1b2a1 is 18%, and 25% in Polesia. Ethno-genesis of proto-Slavs happened in Polesia.
https://i.pinimg.com/originals/7e/eb/8f/7eeb8fb24d99e9e3443b739a52c5a501.png

If I2a1b2a1 is not Slavic than Ukrainians, Belarusians and Russians should have 0% I2a1b2a1.

G2a-L497 is clearly Celtic, archeologically proven. Irish, Breton and Scottish people today have low percentage of G2a-L497.
Today's percentages of haplogroups have nothing to do with their deeps origins.

I2 in Ukraine and others came from Thracians and Illyrians.
They moved in whole Balkan region and north

If I2 was Slavic their most concentration must was in Poland (the land of protoslavs)

[Bosniensis]

I2 in Ukraine and others came from Thracians and Illyrians.
They moved in whole Balkan region and north

If I2 was Slavic their most concentration must was in Poland (the land of protoslavs)

It's really hard to talk about Pre-Hellenic peoples which are observed though Hellenic eyes.

For example Hellenes do not deny that Thracians are older than Greeks in Europe then they call Hellenized Thracians as Romans while non-hellenized as Barbarians.

Hellenized Illyrians like Constantine and Diocletian are Heroes and Romans, while true Illyrians who spoke their own language (Balto-Slavic) presumably are Barbarians.

Also Hellenes never denided the fact that Thracians and Illyrians never called themselves with that name.

For example Niketas Choniates says: Illyrians of Triballian ancestry or how they call themselves Serbs.. He clearly explained that Hellenes have their own way of tracking things.

For example: Tribe of Deretii from Eastern Herzegovina (mentioned by Pliny the Elder) is still there but they call themselves Deretići (not Deretii) cause Hellenes can't pronounce Ć, Č etc..

Both Thracians and Illyrians are Pre-Hellenic people who had their own culture and civilization (albeit inferior) to those of Hellenic peoples for the reason Hellenes spent
much more times in contact with Late Sumerians and Egyptians who transferred many things to them. IMHO.

[Dick]

so basically I2 would've been considered a barbarian haplogroup in the ancient world.

[Bosniensis]

so basically I2 would've been considered a barbarian haplogroup in the ancient world.

in Hellenic World.

Remember, everything you read is observed from Hellenic standpoint.

Illyrians and Thracians did not consider themselves Barbarians even if later they got Hellenized in a good %

Illyrians were never fully Hellenized... Romans complained that Illyrians are terrible people who resist the most and live in their mountains and difficult to access locations xD xD xD

Dalmatia was Latinized, Serbia was Latinized (Solin, Sirmium, Virminacum) few important locations.. but villages NO...

I believe that inferior Latinization of Illyrians revived Slavic langauge where Good Latinization of Dacians in the end brought Latin to life even today.

Basically Dacians (Romanians) are speaking a language of their conquerors while we are speaking ours.

[Dick]

in Hellenic World.

Remember, everything you read is observed from Hellenic standpoint.

Illyrians and Thracians did not consider themselves Barbarians even if later they got Hellenized in a good %

Illyrians were never fully Hellenized... Romans complained that Illyrians are terrible people who resist the most and live in their mountains and difficult to access locations xD xD xD

Dalmatia was Latinized, Serbia was Latinized (Solin, Sirmium, Virminacum) few important locations.. but villages NO...

but before those cities were given Latin names they were celtic names. Singidun and even Naissus


during the Gallic invasion of the Balkans, the Scordisci tribe defeated the Triballi and settled the lands

[Bosniensis]

but before those cities were given Latin names they were celtic names. Singidun and even Naissus

Yes but remember that Gaul was Empty place except few Celtic villages and that most of their armies and people died in fight against Romans then Germans.

Europe 1227 A.D

https://www.abroadintheyard.com/wp-content/uploads/Europe-c-1227-AD-8h-jpg.jpg

Europe 2000 B.C.

https://www.abroadintheyard.com/wp-content/uploads/Europe-c-2000-BC-8h-jpg.jpg


Can we agree that Gauls and Celts and Thracians and Illyrians were all I2?

Gaul was ravaged by Romans (J2, E1b) then Germans (R1b)

Northern Italy (I2) ravaged by Romans (J2, E1b) then Germans (R1b)

Only poor Illyrians and Thracians (South Slavs and Romanians) of Pre-Hellenic Europe survived, even Hellenic Europe is barely alive through Greece and Turkified Anatolians.

[Dick]

https://www.abroadintheyard.com/wp-content/uploads/Europe-c-2000-BC-8h-jpg.jpg


Can we agree that Gauls and Celts and Thracians and Illyrians were all I2?



if this map is accurate then I dont see why not

[Bosniensis]

if this map is accurate then I dont see why not

I've read somewhere that in a 3rd century, wast majority of Europe lived in Anatolia, Greece, Illyria and Italy.

Everything else was negligible.

For example: Diocletian divided Roman Empire in 4 parts

1. Anatolia
2. Illyria
3. Italy
4. Spain, Britain, Gaul

That's why R1b has dominated today in Spain, Britain and Gaul.. cause those areas were scarcely populated, but before R1b were I2.

However take a look how he created Illyria and Anatolia (way smaller territories than those on 4.) separate? Because they had WAY MORE people.

That's why you have I2 on Balkans today but not anymore in Spain Britain and Gaul.

[Dick]

I've read somewhere that in a 3rd century, wast majority of Europe lived in Anatolia, Greece, Illyria and Italy.

Everything else was negligible.

For example: Diocletian divided Roman Empire in 4 parts

1. Anatolia
2. Illyria
3. Italy
4. Spain, Britain, Gaul

That's why R1b has dominated today in Spain, Britain and Gaul.. cause those areas were scarcely populated, but before R1b were I2.

However take a look how he created Illyria and Anatolia (way smaller territories than those on 4.) separate? Because they had WAY MORE people.

That's why you have I2 on Balkans today but not anymore in Spain Britain and Gaul.

There is still a good percentage of I2a2 in britain and even Germany but not so much for Iberia or france which was obviously more Romanized by colonists

[Bosniensis]

There is still a good percentage of I2a2 in britain and even Germany but not so much for Iberia or france which was obviously more Romanized by colonists

Emperor Constantius who ruled Spain, Gaul and Britain (Father of Constantine I) in order to prevent Frankish invasions he agreed to import a large sums of Germanic migrants from Eastern Germanic territories.

that worked for some time (I don't know how long) but it is through that period that Frankish populace started learning and distorting Latin language in Gaul, and finally in 480 A.D. Frankish ruler Clovis murdered Syragius (independent Roman Ruler of Gaul)

That's how R1b became Latinized from German tongue and became dominant there.

Norse people never learned Latin (Angles and Saxones) those guys from Denmark, they spoke a primitive variant of English language.

Spain has been latinized the same way Gaul was, Visigoths and Vandals live there now... No more Celts, they are speaking distorted Latin + they mixed with Arabs who gave them "Med Color" xD

So only South Slavs are descendants of Celts, Illyrians, Thracians etc.. no doubt.

[Pribislav]

I2 in Ukraine and others came from Thracians and Illyrians.
They moved in whole Balkan region and north

If I2 was Slavic their most concentration must was in Poland (the land of protoslavs)

Dude, land of proto-Slavs is Polesia (Belarus), not Poland. I2a1b in Polesia is 25%.
I2a1b exist in Poland - about 6%.

Where are the sources about Illyrian and Thracian migrations to Ukraine, Belarus and Russia?

Migrations of Illyrians and Thracians from the Balkans towards to eastern Europe are not recorded in any historical sources.

[Bosniensis]

Dude, land of proto-Slavs is Polesia (Belarus), not Poland. I2a1b in Polesia is 25%.
I2a1b exist in Poland - about 6%.

Where are the sources about Illyrian and Thracian migrations to Ukraine, Belarus and Russia?

Migrations of Illyrians and Thracians from the Balkans towards to eastern Europe are not recorded in any historical sources.

Lol man, not even Illyrians themselves are recorded correctly in any historical sources.

But Greeks confirmed that both Illyrians and Thracians (how Hellenes called them) PREDATE Hellenes.

Why would Greeks or Romans create a note about Illyrian conquest of Ukraine since they called them "Barbarians" all the way up to Hellenization.

That doesn't mean it didn't happen, it's just not recorded.