How did R1a end up so prevalent in both South Asians and Slavs?

[Sikeliot]

Did it enter India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Iran etc through a northern wave of Slavic-like people, or was it the other way around?

[arcticwolf]

Let's see, let get this right.

Slavic-like from the north, got mixed over 3500 years with the black race that was there.

or

Black race Slavic-like people moved north and got mixed with the beautiful/pure as a driven show whities (Germanics and Finnics) in mother Europe?

which one sounds more likely? :laugh:

[Loki]

Did it enter India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Iran etc through a northern wave of Slavic-like people, or was it the other way around?

Neither. The Aryan ancestors of both Slavs and Indians invaded both areas, presumably from a middle location in central Asia.

[Arcadefire]

I am not so sure. But if there were to have been some sort of migration, there should have been a train of r1a1 markers between Ukraine and the modern day North India.

http://gentis.ru/img/y/M198.gif

[Arcadefire]

THis theory makes more sense imo.

[Loki]

I am not so sure. But if there were to have been some sort of migration, there should have been a train of r1a1 markers between Ukraine and the modern day North India.


Not necessarily, because the middle area is rather sparsely populated central Asian plains, and people did not end up settling there, but moved on.

[alfieb]

Scythians

[Arcadefire]

Not necessarily, because the middle area is rather sparsely populated central Asian plains, and people did not end up settling there, but moved on.

Yea, that could be true aswell.

[Graham]

http://www.usu.edu/markdamen/1320Hist&Civ/slides/07ie/IElanguagesmap.jpg

[Loki]

It could all be of Tocharian origin for all we know.

[Prince Carlo]

I am not so sure. But if there were to have been some sort of migration, there should have been a train of r1a1 markers between Ukraine and the modern day North India.

http://gentis.ru/img/y/M198.gif

R1a herders of Central Asia were wiped out by C3 mongoloids.

[Vesuvian Sky]

-Andronovo-Sintashta-Arkaim = archaeological aspects of Proto-Indo-Iranian culture within Kurgan culture theory
-Middle-Dnieper culture plus Fatyanovo culture = pre-Proto-Baltic-Slavic within Kurgan culture theory

Fatyanovo culture eventually winds up playing a role in forming Andronovo culture horizon as described in this book (http://www.amazon.com/The-Horse-Wheel-Language-Bronze-Age/dp/069114818X/ref=sr_1_1?ie=UTF8&qid=1382820274&sr=8-1&keywords=horse+the+wheel+and+language).

[Annihilus]

How did R1a end up so prevalent in both South Asians and Slavs?

R1a males will screw just about anything, that's why.

[Serpent Mist]

Isn't the defining marker of R1a over 20,000 years old? I think the paleolithic carriers of R1a would of been among the first successful settlers around the steppes of eastern Europe. The PIE speakers would later dominate this region and ancestral Indo-Iranic would develop here.
Proto-Indic speakers then migrated towards south Asia. The subcontinent was already well settled at the time, without a population replacement taking place intermingling between the R1a carrying Indic speakers and the Dravidian(?) natives would naturally have occurred. This explains the phenotype of South Asians being different to eastern Europeans, even though many among both groups of people sharing the same distant paternal ancestry.
Those that remained would go on to develop the Iranic peoples (Sarmatians, western Scythians etc.), who would lead later migrations towards southern central and western Asia. The remnant R1a would become dominated by growing Slavic and Turkic speakers creating the current situation we find today.
I think while this narrative is definitely simplistic it should be generally correct in giving a good idea of the spread of R1a.

[Artek]

Relative homogenity of some areas, conquests, bottleknecks. There are plenty of reasons why...


I am not so sure. But if there were to have been some sort of migration, there should have been a train of r1a1 markers between Ukraine and the modern day North India.
Remember that there is a huge time gap between such migrations and many of early lineages were just wiped out/extinct for some reasons. However, it's clear that R1a entered India from a northwestern direction just basing on simple SNP succession.

[Tim O'Brien]

Relative homogenity of some areas, conquests, bottleknecks. There are plenty of reasons why...


Remember that there is a huge time gap between such migrations and many of early lineages were just wiped out/extinct for some reasons. However, it's clear that R1a entered India from a northwestern direction just basing on simple SNP succession.

Yes，R1a of Indian people came from central Asia direction, that make sense:thumb001: