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Originally Posted by
Token
No, it don't makes. You just sound confused trying to prove something using non-sensical analogies.
It is exactly what you sugested.
Not my fault, that you were talking nonsense.
So, please, do not put it on me.
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So where are the East Germanic influences in Polish?
words for bred, sword, prince aso...
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There are any dialect of Polish heavily Vandalic or Gothic-influenced
You are again talking nonsense.
You are disscussing with things, which I did not said.
Nothing strange, that you do not understand what we are talking about.
So, please, choose: either you are talking with your imaginable Rethel, or with real me.
If with the first one -I am ending this disscussion right now.
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like the languages of Northern Italy that reflect perfectly what occurs when a different language is imposed in another different tongue? No.
And what? Lack of such dialect killed people?
And in Italy, existing of such dialect gave the life? :bored:
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Cite one East Germanic feature found in the Polish language.
I just did above. Even three.
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I can cite the n-stem declension adopted by Spanish from Gothic (wardjan -> guardião), some war-related words and the genitive -ez from the Gothic -iks later latinized to -ici and have in mind that they where already heavily latinized before entering the peninsula. And you?
Did it make Celtiberians true and real Goths from Scandia? :picard2:
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The Norman language derived from French certainly influenced the English, mostly lexically and more visible in formal situations but still a heavy influence. But still, the Germanic structure remained intact and the English is still considered a West Germanic language so you just proved my point.
The Celticims in the English language is still obscure and need further research but the periphrastic 'do', loss of front rounded vowels and the rise of reflexives are just some that i can remember now.
You really have hard time with getting simple facts.
It was not a matter to debate english language.
I just showed you, how nonsensical your linguistic argument was.
No need for elaborating english matters. :bored:
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What i said is that the East Germanic population was completely absorbed by subjugation, probably because the Slavs outnumbered them by a long margin and this is backed by genetic evidences like those that Peterski posted. They mixed and the blood was diluted more and more if you still can't understand.
And you again proved my point, acknowledging the fact,
that people survived. It is really so hard to get? :picard2:
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I think it's you that have some problem.
No, you are the only one who have.
In one sentence you say, people are alive, and in the
second, you are denying that fact based on... language... :picard2:
can you finally decide what is your point? Did people extinct or they are alive?
They cannot be dead and alive at the same time.