"Proto-Iranians were not Northern Europeans"

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Originally Posted by Arhat

well if this is true you have a basal clade but that does not mean it is ancestral at all. The daddy of all R1a died long ago so dont talk bullshit again. R1a* just means you have a rare clade not that your clade is older.

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What is true? That I'm R1a* lol. Well, my R1a* is rare and unique because I'm not a product of mass rape. R1a in Kurdish population is very divers what means that our R1a is NOT a product of mass rape or a bottlenecked elite dominance like in other places. Diverse R1a is very fair distributed among other haplogroups, like J2a in Kurdistan.

I know that my R1a* is very rare to have a name, but it is also a fact that it didn't evolve from modern major bottlenecked R1a's. It has its own different history on his native areas of Kurdistan.

Of course my R1a* is a modern one of our age, but it is evolved from someone who predate M417.

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Originally Posted by Arhat

well explain me why Pamiri have around 40-50% Sintashta/Bronze Age Euro ancestry and Pashtuns around 30%. And why Jatts and Brahmins also have this kind of ancestry. Brahmins did not mix with foreigner after the Iron Age so where they got this european admixture?

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Because they have the most of the so called Eastern Iranic 'Saka'/Dahae & Massagetae and other 'Mongoloid' Central Asian ancestry.

That auDNA entered India only after 1500BC with the East Iranian Scythians. Indo-Iranian is much, much older than 1500BC.

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Originally Posted by MS85

Because they have the most of the so called Eastern Iranic 'Saka'/Dahae & Massagetae and other 'Mongoloid' Central Asian ancestry.

That auDNA entered India only after 1500BC with the East Iranian Scythians. Indo-Iranian is much, much older than 1500BC.

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MUH VERY OLD INDO-IRANIAN

https://img.fireden.net/v/image/1506...6274633541.png

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Originally Posted by MS85

Because they have the most of the so called Eastern Iranic 'Saka'/Dahae & Massagetae and other 'Mongoloid' Central Asian ancestry.

That auDNA entered India only after 1500BC with the East Iranian Scythians. Indo-Iranian is much, much older than 1500BC.

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Aryan BMAC PREDATE those people. And BMAC even predates the Andronovo Horizon

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Originally Posted by Arhat

well explain me why Pamiri have around 40-50% Sintashta/Bronze Age Euro ancestry and Pashtuns around 30%. And why Jatts and Brahmins also have this kind of ancestry. Brahmins did not mix with foreigner after the Iron Age so where they got this european admixture?

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Look no one is denying that Sintashta/Andronovo is a distant ancestor to Iranics, but they are one of many and their link is not even direct. There were no pure Sintashtans or Andronovans around who mixed with native Iranics 1000 or 2000 years ago. So their link to us is via the Iron Age and later steppe nomads who are more relevant to us Iranics. Also, if you post the exact analysis you got those numbers from I can give you more specific answers.

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Kurdish has nothing to do with it and after jaghnobi and Ossetian Pamiri and Pashto are closest to Saka.

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I think its pointless even discussing this with you since you clearly did not pay any attention to the genetic, linguistic and archeological evidence I posted on the previous page

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Originally Posted by Token

MUH VERY OLD INDO-IRANIAN

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I don't know what is your native language, Hebrew, Assyrian or German, but my native ARYAN language (family group) is at least much older than your language.

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Originally Posted by MS85

Because they have the most of the so called Eastern Iranic 'Saka'/Dahae & Massagetae and other 'Mongoloid' Central Asian ancestry.

That auDNA entered India only after 1500BC with the East Iranian Scythians. Indo-Iranian is much, much older than 1500BC.

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No Brahmins have also this ancestry and they have R1a-L657 which Saka lacked and obviously not mixed with Saka.

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Originally Posted by Zoro

Look no one is denying that Sintashta/Andronovo is a distant ancestor to Iranics, but they are one of many and their link is not even direct. There were no pure Sintashtans or Andronovans around who mixed with native Iranics 1000 or 2000 years ago. So their link to us is via the Iron Age and later steppe nomads who are more relevant to us Iranics. Also, if you post the exact analysis you got those numbers from I can give you more specific answers.



I think its pointless even discussing this with you since you clearly did not pay any attention to the genetic, linguistic and archeological evidence I posted above

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In most sense, yeah. The PIE peoples of central asia began mixing and assimilating the native populace of central asia long before their migration to Iran and other places.

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Originally Posted by Zoro

Look no one is denying that Sintashta/Andronovo is a distant ancestor to Iranics, but they are one of many and their link is not even direct. There were no pure Sintashtans or Andronovans around who mixed with native Iranics 1000 or 2000 years ago. So their link to us is via the Iron Age and later steppe nomads who are more relevant to us Iranics. Also, if you post the exact analysis you got those numbers from I can give you more specific answers.



I think its pointless even discussing this with you since you clearly did not pay any attention to the genetic, linguistic and archeological evidence I posted on the previous page

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which fucking linguistic or genetic evidence? Posting a link to a dubious site is fucking irrelevant. Show me one linguist who thinks Saka is closer to Kurdish than to Jaghnobi, Pashto or Ossetian? Also Pamiri, Jaghnobi and Pashtunsa are genetically much closer to Saka and Pamiri are basically southern Saka which survived the turkification and persianization.

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Originally Posted by Toppo900

In most sense, yeah. The PIE peoples of central asia began mixing and assimilating the native populace of central asia long before their migration to Iran and other places.

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They entered the region via the Yaz culture i would say and probably had around 50% BMAC-admixture already. So yeah they probably looked nothing like North Europeans when they entered Persia. That is an outdated fantasy too.