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Originally Posted by
IdealUral
South West Asian cluster has a higher drag toward SSA Africa than any other Caucasoid cluster safe for the Berber one.
That is for sure, considering the geographical proximity and history of the region and populations, it makes perfect sense.
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Though it seems to be distantly related to the Med component, and not the West Asian cluster, since the West Asian cluster seems to be related distantly to the North European cluster, but it does not show a drag to SSA Africa.
Well, that's the important point I referred to. Modern Europeans, especially the Indo-European component, is largely a mix of West Asian + Mesolithic Eastern Europeans.
If you can distinguish the archaic Mesolithic component of the fringe regions, isolate it, you get a Northern component which is closest to West Asian.
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Today the South West Asian cluster peaks in the Bedouins, Saudis, Yemeni Jews and Iraqis who usually score from 100% to 85% South West Asian.
That is the Afro-Asiatic/Semitic group.
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Reaching Northern Iraq it falls dramatically to the West Asian cluster. It's one of the very unique "West Eurasian" clusters, and as well most distant to Europeans.
Indeed, because the Northern Near Eastern component is very close to Europeans and was much more so before becoming mixed with different elements, like South West Asians.
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Originally Posted by
Iberia
Then we should apply the same to other components, like the Southwest-asian. In conclusion, you are confusing caucasoid with european. Yes, west-asian is a caucasoid component, no doubt, but it's not european.
It is one of the larger components in Europe, so you might say it WAS coming from somewhere else, but so did the other components to a large degree too.
Don't forget, just because the other components were essentially cut off doesn't mean they were present in Europe so much longer...
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Why later ? Im pretty sure this southwest asian component in Europeans was carried by neolithic people, the near-east farmers, which is whre it peaks actually. Exactly the same times as the West-Asian component, and carried by the same people who carried haplogroups E, J, etc. This component is highest in greeks and italians, and coincidently, these are the places with highest J and E of Europe.
Well, probably not only later, but also along different pathways. It is typical however, that the overlap between these two components is far from complete, with some regions having much higher West Asian : South West Asian ratios than others and vice versa.
It seems quite obvious to me, that a large portion of West Asian and related elements, now already merged into the "Northern coloniser group", therefore tearing it towards West Asian, while the "Fringe groups" being further removed from it, came early on, even in the Mesolithic and spread strongly on the land route, early on.
While the West Asian had more a spread along the coastal routes and presumably later. This is just my suggestion based on various factors, but it might be proven someday :)
This is one of the maps showing the distribution of J1:
http://www.anthropometry.info/Haplogroup_J1.jpg
Further inland it came mainly along the Danube, otherwise it is practically everywhere coastal.
I'm pretty sure South West Asian will correspond more to that, than to the standard Neolithic markers of the West Asian group.
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well, that's not true. Paternally they are very indo-european, having 90% of haplogroup R1b-M269. Plus, the isolation factor is not an explanation of why the basques lack the west-asian component.
So, what else do you think is the reason?
All Indo-Europeans seem to have two components: Northern European (Eastern European) and West Asian.
Everything else varies from region to region...
And how do you know that R1b-M269 must have been Indo-European?
A group with 90 percent of another group's parternal lineages would be much more likely to actually become part of that or so heavily influenced in language and culture...
