Origin of I2-din. Slavic, Paleo-Balkan or?

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Originally Posted by Leto

So I2 in the Balkans is supposed to be Slavic but when I said R1a in Romania and Hungary is Slavic some people criticized me.

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R1a is more complicated, as there are a lot of branches and not all of them seem to be connected to the Slavs.
I2a is easy because literally 99% of it in Southeast Europe falls under Y3120, which is linked to the period of Slavic migrations.

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Originally Posted by Feiichy

But it deepest origin is celtic lands, so I would say rather some migration from western europe which blended with R1a proto Balto Slavs and created proto Slavs.

But we will see.

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We need more consistent aDNA results, not those 1 sample Y-DNA reveal like the Etruscan or Dalmatian(if he was Pre-Illyrian or Illyrian anyway). That's like playing bingo.

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Originally Posted by Feiichy

WHG autosomal was extremelly northern, much more than in modern northern Europeans. Even Sicilian WHGs were 100% northern European genetically.

And their facial features were more northern and robust than any modern people.

Should I mention none of them had mud (brown) eye color but only blue?

Those are facts.

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WHG was also darker than any wog dreamt of being.


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Originally Posted by Feiichy

Nope. All ancient I2 din samples we have so far are Slavic, and balkan clades descend from eastern euro clades. No I2-din has been found in pre Slavic Balkan samples.

R1a is too low in Balkans to explain our huge and predominant Slavic autosomal admixture, sorry.

It is Slavic just like I1 is Germanic.

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Ancient DNA proves significant impact of the Slavic colonization, Croats push 70% on average. Even Bulgarians have at least 40%. This whole ''Slavic invasions were a cultural exchange but had no great genetic impact" is getting nailed since those last 3 years.

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Originally Posted by -Scar-

Ancient DNA proves significant impact of the Slavic colonization, Croats push 70% on average. Even Bulgarians have at least 40%. This whole ''Slavic invasions were a cultural exchange but had no great genetic impact" is getting nailed since those last 3 years.

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+1

And Serbs 50-60%.

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Originally Posted by Jugo

I2 is Cromagnon, neither Slavic nor Germanic or Balkan. It's related with Cromagnon migrations to Europe.

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First of all you should learn the difference between I2 and subtypes of I2, because we are talking about the last one and these are not same. Indeed the pure version of I2 is paleo-european, but this type doesn't exist nowadays only it's subtypes and these subtypes (like I2a-din) is not so old and connected to the slavic ethnogenesis, other subtypes connected to others ethnogenesis for example r1b-u106 is germanic, n1c1 is uralic etc.

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Originally Posted by Blondie

First of all you should learn the difference between I2 and subtypes of I2, because we are talking about the last one and these are not same. Indeed the pure version of I2 is paleo-european, but this type doesn't exist nowadays only it's subtypes and these subtypes (like I2a-din) is not so old and connected to the slavic ethnogenesis, other subtypes connected to others ethnogenesis for example r1b-u106 is germanic, n1c1 is uralic etc.

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I2-din isn't different to base I2... it just has a mutation.

Father of the first I2-din wasn't I2-din.

It's a not different haplogroup, it's the same people.

Sardinian and Bosniak I2 is the same.

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Originally Posted by Bosniensis

I2-din isn't different to base I2... it just has a mutation.

Father of the first I2-din wasn't I2-din.

It's a not different haplogroup, it's the same people.

Sardinian and Bosniak I2 is the same.

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By this logic everyone are african in the world, because ancestors of humans came from there.

By the way, for the sake of truth, Slavs didn't invade Illyrians, they migrated in numbers after the devastating Justinian pandemics which weakened the Illyrian population. Otherwise, on their best i seriously doubt Illyrians will allow Slavs to migrate en masse.

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The plague pandemic in 541–543 and successive outbreaks of the disease till the latter half of the 8th century caused a deep demographic crisis in the Eastern Roman Empire. The most important effects of the plague were a shortage of manpower and a growing importance of marginal barbarian populations, which had suffered less or not at all from the disease. Demographic, political and economic consequences of the pandemic likely caused or at least facilitated Slavic expansion in the Balkans between the 6th and 8th century. The Slavs began to raid intensively and then settle the European provinces of the Roman Empire soon after the first outbreak of the plague and available textual evidence suggests that this region was depopulated by the disease and neglected by the government. During the 7th century, the Empire’s administration and economy collapsed due to the effects of the plague and the existing system of land taxation and central provisioning of professional armies must have been replaced by regional organization of territorial troops recruited from free peasant farmers. In the new circumstances, the Slavs, who had in the meantime re-populated the Balkans, constituted an abundant source of manpower for a restored Empire.

https://www.researchgate.net/publica...-8th_centuries

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Originally Posted by Daos777

WHG was also darker than any wog dreamt of being.


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Not really though, you can't determine a humans skin color unless you have a sample of their skin, melanin production is not easily predictable.