You still didn't answer for these hard questions, what are facts and refute you. If you want to say that conquerors had uralic genetic origin, then you must post a genetic result of conqurors when they were mostly uralic, but there is no such thing, the genetic results showed a different pic:
http://doktori.bibl.u-szeged.hu/id/e...is_english.pdf
even the MTA (Hungarian Academy of Sciences) said "we have no finno-ugric origin, only our language is finno-ugric":
https://mta.hu/tudomany_hirei/nem-mi...nyeirol-108820
Every serious scientist and prof agree that conquerors had turkic ethnic origin not finno-ugric.
And there is other candidate population, the hungarus what Anonymus mentioned. The spanish example is bullshit because the latinization of America happened for centuries, it was pretty long process (unlike the hungarian case), there were schools, and the national identity was much stronger than in the 9. century. In fact, most of native americans learned spanish only between the 19-18 century when the national awakening started, before that they used mostly the local tribal language.