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Linguistics was stuided a long before genetic-haplogroup-trace existed. So they didn't know surely who is R1 and who is not when they PROVED that Latin is Indo-European language. Just admit this fact. No one can't deny it. You want to make linguistical distance between Roman Empire and Germanic barbarians, but you can't. Their languages has same roots.Quote:
Originally Posted by Bosniensis
Well I can confirm that after Lombards (North Germanic tribe) conquered Italy they have started embracing Latin words into their Germanic language, also Franks (who were Germanic conquerors of Gaul) also started mixing Latin words with their Germanic language (cause Franks are West Germanic Tribe).Quote:
Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic
I don't know How could they invent Latin when they spoke Germanic languages, and even modern French and Italian are Germanic derivatives... they call them "Romance" cause they are "Latin influenced"
Latin language is dead language, and if they were Romans they would have been speaking Greek not Germanic Romance Languages.
Well I can confirm that after Lombards (North Germanic tribe) conquered Italy they have started embracing Latin words into their Germanic language, also Franks (who were Germanic conquerors of Gaul) also started mixing Latin words with their Germanic language (cause Franks are West Germanic Tribe).Quote:
Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic
I don't know How could they invent Latin when they spoke Germanic languages, and even modern French and Italian are Germanic derivatives... they call them "Romance" cause they are "Latin influenced"
Latin language is dead language, and if they were Romans they would have been speaking Greek not Germanic Romance Languages.
The closest language to Latin is Romanian, very good Latin grammar.
Roman Opinion of Modern Italians:
https://i.imgur.com/191R7bV.png
Bos. "moje", Lat. "mea", German. "mein", English "mine", Irish "mo", Lithuanian "mano", Russian "мой"Quote:
Originally Posted by Bosniensis
You can see that word is of same origin in every of those languages. Then compare it to, for example Turkish: "benim" and you will see that's obviously different branch.
You can see reconstructions of proto-Italic, proto-Celtic, proto-Germani, proto-Balto-Slavic and compare it each other, you will see, that they are indeed of same linguistical branch.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kipchak Håkan
ahahahahaha...... how stupid and low intelligence. So you're still on about R1a being Turkic origin after all these years. You're a foolish person. R1a in India predates any Aryan invasion especially long before your fake Scythian-Turkic with R1a.
All modern day Turkish people have haplogroup R1a as a result of predominate Mongoloid males who look like Kyrgyz carrying R1a and interbreeding with the local Anatolian Europoid females.
It's refreshing to hear the accurate statements about R1b and R1a. I cannot say I study all of R1 haplogroups, but all paperwork I find of R1b U106 shows it in Kazakhstan as stated and spreading westward. I'm not certain why they need to call it "Germanic" despite that it is found in the areas today of Germany and Netherlands the most. Oh well, hopefully these terms will be reevaluated as more people realize different ethnic groups had different haplogroups. Turkic people alone have a large diversity of them, and I'm talking about pre-settlement, not just today.Quote:
Originally Posted by Stearsolina
I have only briefly looked those studies. I will dive deeper now. What are your thoughts on the Langobards and R1b U106?
Why Indians are trying to prove that Aryan invasion never happened? Why is that fact problem for India?Quote:
Originally Posted by ButlerKing
Firstable some Europeans geneticist believe " out of India " theory also the world highest R1a can be found only in India reaching 82% and Indians made a better effort spread R1a. Turks on the other hand heavy Mongoloid admixture and their are many burials of Mongoloid males and Europoid females in Central Asia and Siberia but guess what ? those males carried R1a from their Scythian ancestors and all of this predates the existence of Turkish Turks by a 1000+ years when they are already part Mongoloid. Even if a Aryan invasion existed it would have happened 8000 years ago and were all heavily admixed with South Asian DNA meaning North Indians have been North Indians in the past decades of millenniums on the other hand Turkish Turkish received R1a during the Oghuz invasion of of Turkey.Quote:
Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic
All western Eurasian haplogroup in Cambodians came from Indians and the proof is in the fact they also have typical south Asian admixture
South Asian mtDNA map so any Indian R1a in Southeast Asia came from North Indians.
http://i60.tinypic.com/r0o2v6.png
It's possible that basal U106 was found in Kazakhstan, but are you sure it isn't from Volga Germans that were deported to Kazakhstan by Soviets ?Quote:
Originally Posted by Turul Karom
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Germans_of_Kazakhstan
I think R1b U106 among Langobards not suprise :)Quote:
Most of them are the offspring of Volga Germans, who were deported to the then Soviet republic of Kazakhstan from the Volga German Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic soon after the Nazi German Invasion during World War II. Large portions of the community were imprisoned in the Soviet labor camp system.