Originally Posted by
alnortedelsur
I don't want to be misunderstood. I don't defend Openhimer old theories or any special British/Irish-Iberian connection, and I know that R1b was brought to western Europe by Indo-European population movements. I'm just saying that there is a pre-Indo European substratum that gets higher the more west you go in Europe, which makes sense, since west Europe is like a last corner from the point of view of Indo-European waves coming from the east. And that pre-Indo European substratum peaks in Iberia (not talking about R1b, or anything of that sort, just saying) for being in the very west of Europe, and having been less affected by Celtic and other Indo-European waves compared to Britain and Ireland. But British and Irish, for their very western position in Europe, have more of that ancient substratum (peaking in SW England and Wales, but more diluted than in modern Iberians) than other northern Europeans.
Basque language would be the only linguistical remain of that ancient pre-Indo European substratum.
If not, then how you explain that Cornish and Welsh (in their more isolated position, without shores to open sea) are the closest Brits to Iberians?