I keep hearing this but never understand where R1
b exists in this scheme of things. I've always held both R1a and R1b to be IE, R1b in Palaeolithic Iberia doesn't seem likely.
My theory to explain Basque R1b is that they simply aquired language as children from their Neolithic mothers rather than the IE males. It makes sense when you consider that women raise the children. Perhaps IE males in that situation just never managed to teach their new wives the IE languages?
http://img842.imageshack.us/img842/4...tructurev2.png