Indo-European origins.

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Originally Posted by Albion

Right, so that's Tarim - now how about Finnic Kola and Ainu Sakhalin? Oh, and Burkino Faso - how did they get there? Don't tell me the Berbers took them.

It is likely that in many places such a simple symbol developed independently. Some Mississippi native Americans did just that:

http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedi...nas_design.jpg

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All came from Indus-Sarasvati civilization since the most ancient were found there and in Middle East.

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Originally Posted by Protospatha

Totally wrong.

J2, G = Aryans Indo-Europeans
R1a, R1b, E, etc. = later Indo-Europeanized

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You're totally wrong. You have a strange Neolithic inferiority complex because you know Italy and much of Southern Europe is Neolithic in genes and so invent stories about IE being Neolithic.

God only knows why, the Neolithic cultures were more advanced than the Bronze Age ones in some respects.

Central-East Europe most likely.

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Originally Posted by Albion

You're totally wrong. You have a strange Neolithic inferiority complex because you know Italy and much of Southern Europe is Neolithic in genes and so invent stories about IE being Neolithic.

God only knows why, the Neolithic cultures were more advanced than the Bronze Age ones in some respects.

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You have inferiority complex. If the R1b and R1a are in majority in Europe this doesn't mean that because they have to be satisfied people must tell them that they are Aryans. North-Euros are everything but not IEs.

Neolithic farmers were the most advanced human beings on the face of earth. Where did civilization arose at first? Indus Valey and Sumeria, both with high frequencies of J2 and G (Sumerians were mainly G and minor J2). Don't tell me civilization was born in the steppes:dielaughing:

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Originally Posted by Protospatha

You have inferiority complex. If the R1b and R1a are in majority in Europe this doesn't mean that because they have to be satisfied people must tell them that they are Aryans. North-Euros are everything but not IEs.

Neolithic farmers were the most advanced human beings on the face of earth. Where did civilization arose at first? Indus Valey and Sumeria, both with high frequencies of J2 and G (Sumerians were mainly G and minor J2). Don't tell me civilization was born in the steppes:dielaughing:

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Civilisation wasn't born on the steppes because steppe peoples are nomads. Indo-Europeans acquired civilisation when the settled down in Europe and Southern Asia.
I don't think anyone is doubting this, it is just you who is attempting to reinforce his identity based on fringe theories. Neolithics spread farming and civilisation to Europe, they did not spread IE languages or religion. Why is that an impossible concept?

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Originally Posted by Protospatha

You have inferiority complex. If the R1b and R1a are in majority in Europe this doesn't mean that because they have to be satisfied people must tell them that they are Aryans. North-Euros are everything but not IEs.

Neolithic farmers were the most advanced human beings on the face of earth. Where did civilization arose at first? Indus Valey and Sumeria, both with high frequencies of J2 and G (Sumerians were mainly G and minor J2). Don't tell me civilization was born in the steppes:dielaughing:

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the haplohroup of the summerians is unknown, is supposed is G

Well Oezti the copper age italian farmer was 0% west asian. So those West Asian guys must have come later.

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Originally Posted by Albion

Civilisation wasn't born on the steppes because steppe peoples are nomads. Indo-Europeans acquired civilisation when the settled down in Europe and Southern Asia.
I don't think anyone is doubting this, it is just you who is attempting to reinforce his identity based on fringe theories. Neolithics spread farming and civilisation to Europe, they did not spread IE languages or religion. Why is that an impossible concept?

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The spread of farming matches better the spread of IE languages than the steppe hypothesis.

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Originally Posted by Joseph Capelli

Well Oezti the copper age italian farmer was 0% west asian. So those West Asian guys must have come later.

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Because he had mixed with indigenous I2 people, loosing all his West Asian component, as happens for a White that mixes with blacks generation after generation, he will lose all his "whiteness".

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Originally Posted by Protospatha

Because he had mixed with indigenous I2 people, loosing all his West Asian component, as happens for a White that mixes with blacks generation after generation, he will lose all his "whiteness".

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He was still 7% South West Asian and 3% North West African. His ancestors came from the Levant and North Africa, but they lacked the West Asian admix, which must have come later from somewhere else (Armenia?)-