Was Haplogroup R originally mongoloid?

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Originally Posted by Peterski

Here is the list of Slavic Y-haplogroups (various branches of R1a and I2a):

http://www.historycy.org/index.php?s...post&p=1685377

Michał estimates, that in year 1 AD Proto-Slavs numbered just 6000 men!:

http://www.historycy.org/index.php?s...post&p=1683001

Can you imagine? From 6000 to hundreds of millions during just 2000 years!

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Most of them are R

I2 can be slavicized only.

But my opinion is that I2 was Illyrian also. why not?

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Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic

Most of them are R

I2 can be slavicized only.

But my opinion is that I2 was Illyrian also. why not?

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I2a1b was the most common haplogroup of northern hunter-gatherers, while not a single one was found in ancient samples of southeastern Europe.
It is pretty clear that it is the native population of the regions that possibly firstly got assimilated into Germanics, and then into Slavics. No chance whatsoever of them being "Illyrian".

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Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic

Most of them are R

I2 can be slavicized only.

But my opinion is that I2 was Illyrian also. why not?

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I2-CTS10228 was not slavized, I2-CTS10228 was together with R1a-M458 and R1a-Z280 participated in creation of proto-Slavs in central or eastern Europe around 2000 years ago.

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Originally Posted by Aenar

I2-CTS10228 is not slavized, I2-CTS10228 was together with R1a-M458 and R1a-Z280 participated in creation of proto-Slavs in central or east Europe 2000 years ago.

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I2a1 were the rulers over R1a Baltic folk, they bring them letters, bible etc.

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Originally Posted by Messier 67

The entire K2 and descendants haplogroups were all mongoloids (Chinese, Koreans, Malayan, Finns, Native Americans) and Negroids (the Papuans).

The pre-Proto-Europeans were mongoloids with Mongoloid features/looks. These Mongoloid features were lost by most during the Proto-Indo-European and Indo-European conquest of Europe. Although some aryan tribes today still exist with full mongoloid features/looks.



source: https://www.eupedia.com/genetics/

Attachment 69069

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That's based on modern diversity and frequencies which can be misleading and inaccurate, we need ancient dna to confirm that K2/P expanded from South East Asia. So far, Ust'-Ishim from Western Siberia and Oase from Romania were both K2a.

Btw, Mal'ta boy belonged to R*, not R1*.

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Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic

Srba* xD

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hvala lijepo

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Originally Posted by Sundqvist

I2a1 were the rulers over R1a Baltic folk, they bring them letters, bible etc.

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Either way, I2a1 and R1a were mixed in central or eastern Europe in ancient period, and not in the Balkans after VII century.

Slavic invaders which came to the Balkans in VII century were I2a1 & R1a, only uneducated people or trolls can say that Slavic invaders were only R1a and that I2a1 was in the Balkans before Slavic invasion.

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Originally Posted by cosmoo

Oase was just K and lived cca. 37800 ybp, while NO was formed cca. 41500 ybp, so no, nothing descends from him. Also, you cleverly omitted Ust-Ishim man, which was K2a, much older than Oase 1 (45000 ybp), and he lived in Siberia.
So no- N is not native to Europe by any means, as all ancient DNA suggests (no Finnic N1c whatsoever in Mesolithic northern Europe, plus, its ancestral clades today live in Siberia).


They have no resemblance whatsoever, niggerish nose means nothing compared to overall morphology.

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You fucking monkey, no matter how many times you repeat this lie, it does not make it true. Oase was NO. Fact.

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Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic

No. Finns are more European then Samiis.

Becouse Finnish DNA is influenced different from Samii.

Look it:

https://www.eupedia.com/europe/europ...logroups.shtml

you have 61% N (who originate in Asia, deal with it), but western Finland is more influenced with I (Or R1a or R1b who already mutated into a European group), so this N is not very visible.

I am sorry if you are N by haplogroup, but this haplogroup is not a factor of your European looking. That is I. That is your grandfather !

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The fact is that I1 in Finns is due to very recent bottleneck effect. If there is any y-dna which explains why I am different to rest of Europeans it is N1c1. Remember, you are genetically more similar to people like Mari and Komi than you are to me. This is because Finns lack the Indo-European admixture which is somewhat present in the Volga Finno-Ugrians.

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Originally Posted by Harkonnen

The fact is that I1 in Finns is due to very recent bottleneck effect. If there is any y-dna which explains why I am different to rest of Europeans it is N1c1. Remember, you are genetically more similar to people like Mari and Komi than you are to me. This is because Finns lack the Indo-European admixture which is somewhat present in the Volga Finno-Ugrians.

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I am more similar to Mari??

Sorry, but my country is 55% haplogroup I2 (proto-European).

55% of citizens of my country, their paternal ancestors are first settlers in Europe :) Along with I1.

So i am not similar to Mari. We have less then 25% of the R in average. So we are not similar to Mari's. (Not genetically, also not lingusitically)

While Finnish language is very close to Turkic. By origin.

Better for you to have indo-european influence, then Turkic!

But you are more proud with your similarity with the Turks.