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According to Dienekes apparently Indo-Europeans were Bronze Age invaders from West Asia who carried the Y-DNA J2a and the WestAsian autosomal component.
While the second opinion which is supported by more geneticists is that Indo-Europeans originate somewhere from Central-Eastern Europe and carried the R1a1a male lineage.
What is your opinion,where did IE people originate?
I believe in the theory of Dienekes, because it furnishes lots of proofs, isn't based on stereotypes, and much more.
A possible explanation od Indo-Europeanization of Western Europe is that the West Asian component in Europe was (and is) found in significative presence among Westerners, with exception of Basques. This West Asian component is the Indo-European factor, it Indo-Europeanized R1b and autochtonous haplogroups (I1, I2, etc.).
"Anatolian Hypothesis still the best hypothesis"
http://dienekes.blogspot.it/2011/04/...neolithic.html
West Asia
The spread of R1a1a reflects well the spread of Indo-European languages from Central-East Europe.
http://www.tiggernut.com/Mito/R1a-map.jpg
http://www.usu.edu/markdamen/1320His...nguagesmap.jpg
R1a originated in Central Asia-India, and everybody accepts that IE languages didn't develop and born there.Quote:
Originally Posted by Optimus
In adding to the map of R1a and languages above, the clades in India and Central Asia are different from the ones in Europe. You need to pay attenction to clades.
That's the old theory. R1a originated in West Asia.Quote:
Originally Posted by Protospatha
http://img855.imageshack.us/img855/4776/byeurogenes.png
Yes but not specific R1a1a clades associated with the Indo-European language which diversity is highest in Central-East Europe.Quote:
Originally Posted by Protospatha