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Thread: "Out of India Theory" and "Aryan Conquest theory" are BOTH wrong?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Kipchak Håkan View Post
    I think you appealed to good points. Here is a good summary for the possible ethnic identities of the Andronovan cultural horizon:

    Russian and Central Asian scholars working on the contemporary but very different Andronovo and Bactrian Margiana archaeological complexes of the 2nd millennium b.c. have identified both as Indo-Iranian, and particular sites so identified, are being used for nationalist purposes. There is, however, no compelling archaeological evidence that they had a common [Indo-European] ancestor or that either is Indo-Iranian. Ethnicity and language are not easily linked with an archaeological signature, and the identity of the Indo-Iranians remains elusive. [...]. There are serious problems in determining the chronology of the Common Altaic protolanguage. The question is not whether an Altaic protolanguage existed but how shared linguistic material due to early contacts can be distinguished from that inherited from the supposed Common Altaic. Whatever the answer to this question, it is very unlikely that in the chronological range of Andronovo and the Bactrian Margiana complex a Common Altaic (still) existed. This means that the possible languages of the bearers of these archaeological cultures can only be Turkic or Mongolian (for several reasons I would exclude Manchu-Tunguzian and other supposed Altaic languages such as Korean or Japanese).[...]. Both Proto-Turkic and Proto-Mongolian could, however, reflect a culture like the Andronovo. [.]. It is not surprising that the majority continue to hold the view that the bearers of the Andronovo culture spoke Indo-Iranian. Consensus is not, however, the hallmark of all responses. [...]. Renfrew favors an Indo-Iranian identity for the Andronovo, and he fully realizes that there is not a shred of evidence that identifies the Andronovo with the traditional homeland of the Indo-Iranian-speakers either on the Iranian Plateau or in South Asia. There is, however, clear evidence for a Bactrian Margiana presence on the Iranian Plateau (Amiet 1984, Hiebert and Lamberg-Karlovsky 1992) and in South Asia (Jarrige 1993, n.d.). [...]. Such diversity among the Andronovo appeals to me. Framing the question as what language the Andronovo spoke is, I believe, misdirected. The Andronovo was made up of many cultures subject to constant change; some may have spoken Indo-Iranian, others Proto-Turkic, and yet others Proto-Mongolian, and, pace Mallory, there may have been an occasional Finno-Ugric-speaker among the lot.

    Source: Archaeology and Language: The Indo-Iranians, by C.C. Lamberg-Karlovsky, Harvard University, Current Anthropology Volume 43, Number 1, February 2002, © by The Wenner-Gren Foundation for Anthropological Research. All rights reserved 0011-3204/2002/4301-0003$3.00).

    These implementations in turn would just confirm following passage from turkic-languages.scienceontheweb.net:

    The theory of Indo-Iranian origins of Andronovians is poorly founded, and the arguments provided for it raise too many doubts. However, it may still hold a couple of appealing points, with some uncertainty still remaining. The main core of Andronovo corresponds to the Alakul culture in northern Kazakhstan, the location of the Alakul culture overlaps the calculated Proto-Bulgaro-Turkic area situated in the Tobol-Ishim-Irtysh demoregion by more than a half. [...] In any case, there is no reason to believe the Indo-Iranian hypothesis is in any way more appealing than the current proposal of the Bulgaro-Turkic identification. [...] the most western and most ancient parts of the early Andronovo, such as Sintashta-Petrovka, could still belong to the Indo-European stock, whereas the more eastern areas, such as Alakul, Fedorovo and possibly other settlements near the Irtysh could most likely be Bulgaro-Turkic in origin.

    Source: The Proto-Turkic Urheimat & The Early Migrations of Turkic Peoples (2012)

    ... and hence Klyosov's assessment:

    "In conclusion, a brief pause on the Scythian issue. From the above, it is clear that the Scythian people - in fact, a collective term, were both Türkic-lingual, and “Iranian-lingual”, or more accurately, Aryan-lingual. They were both nomadic pastoralists (which is typical for the Türkic tribes), and farmers (which is often typical for the Aryans). They had both haplogroups R1a1, and R1b1. They lived in felt yurts (many of those who lived in them, were carriers of R1b1), and also in stationary buildings (many of those were farmers, R1a1). Unfortunately, neither the specialists in the Indo-European languages, nor the Turkists are willing to recognize the duality (at least) of the Scythians, Sarmatians, and many other steppe (and not only steppe) tribes of the 1st millennium BC and the beginning of our era. Moreover, these tribes definitely had other haplogroups, in the first place G, Q, N, C. The carriers of the haplogroup G in the Scythian and Sarmatian times likely were “Iranian-speaking”, and lived in the Iranian Plateau much earlier then the Aryan times. Then, of course, they were not “Indo-Europeans”. The carriers of the Q, N, and C were most likely Türkic-lingual. The sooner both sides, the “Iranists” and “Türkists” recognize these facts, or at this point only considerations, the sooner linguistics would be enriched by new findings and discoveries. Especially, if in addition they would adopt in their research arsenal the DNA genealogy. I dare to hope that this article would facilitate that."

    The concept about Andronov cultures belonging to the carriers of the Türkic-lingual ethnos were also postulated earlier by Tchernikov (1957), Amanjolov (1971, 1975, 1980). Now the numbers of scholars expressing this position gradually grows: Askarov (1996, 2001, 2002, 2004), Hodjaev (2003), Iskhakov (2003).
    http://s155239215.onlinehome.us/turk...ogenesisEn.htm

    Furthermore, the Andronovo anthropological type made a basis for the anthropological Turanid type of Kazakhs, Karakalpaks, Bashkirs, Kirghizes, Altaians, partly Uzbeks, etc.
    Excellent post! As I always thought. Central Asia is such a vast place. BMAC is far removed from the Krasnoyarsk area.

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    Lamberg-Karlovsky further writes:
    "Thus, there is an equally valid quest in searching for the homeland and subsequent migration of the Altaic languages (Turkish, Mongolian), Ugric (Finnish, Hungarian, Estonian) - see Gamkrelidze and Ivanov for a full listings of these language families and Elamo-Dravidian. Each of these three language families have their roots on the Eurasiatic steppes and/or in Central Asia. The fact that these language families, compared to Indo-European, are of far less interest to the archaeologist with regard to the study of homeland(s) and/or subsequent spread, may have a great deal to do with the fact that it is primarily speakers of Indo-European who address this topic in search of their own roots. [...] Although there is a consensus among archaeologists working on the steppes that the Andronovo culture is in the right place at the right time, and thus is to be considered Indo-Iranian, there is neither textual, ethnohistoric, nor archaeological evidence, individually or in combination, that offers a clinching argument for this consensus."


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    It's quite funny how a suggestion has become so factual. There is no archaeological evidence to support a proto-IndoEuropean population. It only exists to fill the gaps in the histories of the Germanic people (hence why it's been originally called Indo-Germanic) and build up nationalism.
    It's even funnier to think that everything is revolved around the Sanskrit language when the Greek language that is considered its descendant pre-dates it by a couple of millenia. And the icing of the cake is when you have studies (a couple of them made by Germans too) of the late 18th century that suggest that these languages in the Indian region were influenced by Greek during and after the Hellnistic period

    If this is a fact, why isn't there any archaelogical evidence anywhere in the world? Did they not have writing systems before they settled in their alleged new locations so that we'd have a similar ? Did they not build homes? Did they not build towns/villages/habitats? Why are Semitic languages not included when they share the same characteristics as the ones that make it to the Indo-European club? Perhaps it's due to it being a nationalism construction?
    There is nothing to link these people with each other. We can't even trace the root of the languages of most of these people and realise if they have been influenced by another language. Most we know of today come from Latin anyway, which contemporary historians considered a mixture Greek and a non-Greek language...

    Sure languages of the world are related other languages. But I really don't all this love for this assumption. Because if this is to be true, it means that there was once a common population that spoke the same language. If there was even the slightest evidence for this, then fine. But there is none.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Vias View Post
    It's quite funny how a suggestion has become so factual. There is no archaeological evidence to support a proto-IndoEuropean population. It only exists to fill the gaps in the histories of the Germanic people (hence why it's been originally called Indo-Germanic) and build up nationalism.
    It's even funnier to think that everything is revolved around the Sanskrit language when the Greek language that is considered its descendant pre-dates it by a couple of millenia. And the icing of the cake is when you have studies (a couple of them made by Germans too) of the late 18th century that suggest that these languages in the Indian region were influenced by Greek during and after the Hellnistic period

    If this is a fact, why isn't there any archaelogical evidence anywhere in the world? Did they not have writing systems before they settled in their alleged new locations so that we'd have a similar ? Did they not build homes? Did they not build towns/villages/habitats? Why are Semitic languages not included when they share the same characteristics as the ones that make it to the Indo-European club? Perhaps it's due to it being a nationalism construction?
    There is nothing to link these people with each other. We can't even trace the root of the languages of most of these people and realise if they have been influenced by another language. Most we know of today come from Latin anyway, which contemporary historians considered a mixture Greek and a non-Greek language...

    Sure languages of the world are related other languages. But I really don't all this love for this assumption. Because if this is to be true, it means that there was once a common population that spoke the same language. If there was even the slightest evidence for this, then fine. But there is none.
    Only funny part is greek supremecists who think they are center of europe and yet reject the obvious fact that R1a and r1b covers all of eurasia around them and is the basis of europe and modern greeks are the odd man out. Whoops.

    There was no racist theories about this, it's just a fact. Archaeology and DNA all say the same thing. As for who invaded who, doesn't matter and most likely they have all been that way a very long time.

    The languages, well ffs greek IS an indo european language, and so is celtic and yes they are all related. There is no theory here it's just a fact. Language is not the same as people, but the IE speakers and IA speakers are all r1b and r1a so it could be true in the sense of some original homeland, too, though I don't like to make such a big leap as that.
    Out Of Africa Theory is a lie.
    http://www.theapricity.com/forum/sho...88#post3431588
    And a mighty angel took up a stone like a great millstone, and cast it into the sea, saying, Thus with violence shall that great city Babylon be thrown down, and shall be found no more at all.

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    How is Greek an 'Indo-European language' when it predates the, according to Indo-European lovers, "mother of all languages" aka Sanskrit, while its roots also predate the so called proto IndoEuropeans?
    And why are the Semitic languages not part of the Indo-European family when they can fall into every category required?
    The Greek language is very much differnt from any other language in the world. If anything, it'd be more legit to claim that everything derived from the Greek language but that's as a ridiculous statement as a PIE theory... There is no proof to support this notion, only blind nationalism and a necessity to fill in the puzzle of the origins of western people.

    Archaeology disproves the Indo-European suggestion, it doesn't verify it.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Vesuvian Sky View Post
    Yes, Soviet archaeologists apparently slugged this out so to speak. Its an interesting highly debated cultural horizon though I never combed through that particular branch of the literature. aDNA of the Andrononvo horizon of course as we all know by now has showed overwhelming the primary Y-DNA lineage to be M-17. And of course one of the males came back as C3.

    There is a very distinct possibility too that the Andronovo cultural horizon wasn't ethno-linguistically exclusive to just one group. Its far to large of cultural bloc afterall.
    Surprisingly Andronovo had 10% C3 and 27% Siberian/Mongoloid mtDNA.

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    Quote Originally Posted by ButlerKing View Post
    Surprisingly Andronovo had 10% C3 and 27% Siberian/Mongoloid mtDNA.
    Doesn't the Siberian mtdna gradually enhance in frequency with each subsequent archaeological horizon from Andronovo based on that Keyser study?

    Also, some archaeological texts will talk of the role that pre-Andronovo cultures played in the role of Andronovo development. Specifically Botai culture of c.3700 BC in present day Kazakhstan is mentioned. Here is some more food for thought:

    Quote Originally Posted by Zmey Gorynych View Post
    Turan is not a one day/night passion. Time can not change the hearts and minds of tr00 Turan followers because Turan is limitless in time and space. Turan is not merely a racial classification, Turan is a state of mind, it is the path of the righteous and the doom of the wicked.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Vesuvian Sky View Post
    Looks a bit like this Kazakh guy, Galymzhan Zholdasbaj:


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    Quote Originally Posted by Kipchak Håkan View Post
    Looks a bit like this Kazakh guy, Galymzhan Zholdasbaj:
    Indeed. Actually, this conversation reminds me I've a stance I've had for a long time regarding central Asia(:naughty2. That is, mixing with caucasoids and mongoloids was occurring in the 'deep' pre-historic era, like at the time of Botai. However, certain sect of keyboard warrior forumites have been known to exhibit much butt hurt over this notion.
    Quote Originally Posted by Zmey Gorynych View Post
    Turan is not a one day/night passion. Time can not change the hearts and minds of tr00 Turan followers because Turan is limitless in time and space. Turan is not merely a racial classification, Turan is a state of mind, it is the path of the righteous and the doom of the wicked.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Vias View Post
    How is Greek an 'Indo-European language' when it predates the, according to Indo-European lovers, "mother of all languages" aka Sanskrit, while its roots also predate the so called proto IndoEuropeans?
    And why are the Semitic languages not part of the Indo-European family when they can fall into every category required?
    The Greek language is very much differnt from any other language in the world. If anything, it'd be more legit to claim that everything derived from the Greek language but that's as a ridiculous statement as a PIE theory... There is no proof to support this notion, only blind nationalism and a necessity to fill in the puzzle of the origins of western people.

    Archaeology disproves the Indo-European suggestion, it doesn't verify it.
    Translated from German:

    "A „culture of Indo-Europeans“ in previous millennias is neither derivable from linguistic nor archaeological material. In particular, no archaeological evidences are available to a „homeland of Indo-Europeans“ in the areals of the Linear Pottery culture, the North Pontic steppe cultures (Wahle/Güntert/Gimbutas-Conception), in the Halaf culture of the Near East or the oldest Neolithic cultural areas in Eastern Anatolia. An emigration (spread) of the population of a „homeland of the Indo-Europeans“ from one of the availed „Urheimat-conceptions“ (i.e. from northern Mesopotamia to the settlement areas of ​​the Teutons and Celts,[...]) is neither supported by anthropological nor archeological material."

    (Alexander Häusler, Indogermanische Altertumskunde, 2000, pp.406-407)


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