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Most do, including the one on my avatar. But there's some holes in his story which make people come up with conspiracy theories.
For example:
Moreover, all of these documents, including letters to his brothers and various people in Italy, are written in Spanish or Latin rather than in Italian. If Columbus was from Genoa, why wouldn’t he write in his native tongue? Additionally, in official Castilian documents in which his origin should have been specified, he is simply referred to as “Cristóbal de Colomo, foreigner” or “Xrobal Coloma” with no qualifying adjective, when other foreign mariners were invariably identified in royal documents by their places of origin—”Fernando Magallanes, Portuguese,” for example, and “Amerigo Vespucci, Florentine.” Why was that? And when Columbus returned from his first voyage to the New World in 1493, ambassadors to the court of Ferdinand and Isabella from Genoa said not a word about him being one of their countrymen in letters they wrote home.
Not once does the famous explorer claim to have come from Genoa.
Equally strange is the fact that there are no existing documents indicating that Cristoforo Colombo, a master mariner who supposedly discovered America, had any meaningful sailing experience prior to his epic voyage of 1492. What is more intriguing is that this same son of a lowly wool carder was addressed as don, had his own coat-of-arms, and married a Portuguese noblewoman, all before his historic voyage of discovery. This would have been impossible in the rigidly class-conscious Iberian society of the 15th century if Columbus had not himself been of noble birth.
Those who doubt Columbus’ Genoese origin maintain that the reason why he concealed his true origin was because he was a Catalan naval captain who fought against Ferdinand’s cousin, King Ferrante of Naples, in the Catalan civil war of 1462-1472. Many Portuguese fought on the Catalan side in that war, including Peter of Portugal, close relative of the Portuguese king. If this story is true, it explains how Columbus honed his nautical skills prior to his voyage to the New World, how he might have been introduced to the Portuguese noblewoman who became his wife, and why he would have concealed his (Catalan) heritage from the royal couple who sponsored his voyages of discovery.
https://blog.oup.com/2015/05/christo...h-anniversary/
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Probably Spain due to global spanning empire.
"My name is The Patriot, my fatherland is Santo Domingo, my condition is Citizen, my religion is the love of truth and justice, and my occupations are to boldly attack vice and loudly praise virtue".
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Both countries are equally foreign to the rest of Europe, but for completely opposite reasons:
• Spain because this country experienced an absolutely specific history in the Middle Ages (Reconquista) and absorbed afterwards a lot of civilizational elements from other European nations (mainly from Italy) without caring to export anything to the rest of Europe. What was distinctively Iberian remained in Iberia.
• Italy because this country set the standards in European art, architecture, litterature, poetry, music etc., exported those items to all of Europe but never needed to import anything from the rest of Europe. We all use on a daily basis Italian inventions like the Latin ABC and Guido di Arezzo's musical notation. Hence the strange sensation when you're in Italy: you feel that this country wouldn't be any different if the rest of Europe never existed.
Well, it's true. Not that I'm very happy with it. Italy is a country I very much admire but do not really like (actually I feel deadly homesick after two days there).
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