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Thread: Are Boshnjaci Illiri or Slavs?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jaxman View Post
    Well if Albanians are the best modern day proxy for Illyrians then the Illyrians certainly were not close to the Germanic peoples genetically.
    "Illyrians" probably differed genetically depending on whether they were from the north or south. I think where Albanians plot is more typical for hellenic, thracian or south illyrians

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    Quote Originally Posted by Hyperborea View Post
    Albanians are Thracians with Germanic and celtic input(Dardanians).
    So you are saying then that Albanians are not Illyrian at all?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jaxman View Post
    So you are saying then that Albanians are not Illyrian at all?
    Yes, but we have also their blood in us.

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    Quote Originally Posted by callmyname View Post
    "Illyrians" probably differed genetically depending on whether they were from the north or south. I think where Albanians plot is more typical for hellenic, thracian or south illyrians
    Yes that probably is true. I thought that Albanians are thought to have retained to most Illyrians blood of all Balkan groups though?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jaxman View Post
    Yes that probably is true. I thought that Albanians are thought to have retained to most Illyrians blood of all Balkan groups though?
    Who knows about blood but culture/language Albanians have the best case of being extension of Illyrians. Not that it's definite Albanian is really Illyrian or Illyrian was one language (maybe multiple unrelated). They still have best argument for it.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jaxman View Post
    Yes that probably is true. I thought that Albanians are thought to have retained to most Illyrians blood of all Balkan groups though?
    I have no idea about that. I don't really take any of it seriously (claiming direct descent)

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    What happened in Bosnia can be very easy named as a founder effect. Their I2a1b is mostly under a Dinaric-S category and R1a largely under L1280 subbranch of Z280.
    And those two single subbranches make up at least half of their male lineages!
    R1a-Z282>Z280>CTS1211>Y35>CTS3402>Y33>CTS8816>Y2902>Y3226>YP5224>BY27800
    N1c-L1026>CTS10760>VL29>Z4908>L550>L1025>M2783>Y5580>L591>BY158>Y5576
    R1a-Z282>Z280>CTS1211>YP1019>YP1020>YP1033*
    R1b-U152>L2>DF103>S14469
    It's still not an end.
    R1a and R1b unite - Join!

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    Quote Originally Posted by Stefan_Dusan View Post
    Who knows about blood but culture/language Albanians have the best case of being extension of Illyrians. Not that it's definite Albanian is really Illyrian or Illyrian was one language (maybe multiple unrelated). They still have best argument for it.
    Right and then again all groups are mixed essentially anyways to varying degrees.

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    Quote Originally Posted by callmyname View Post
    I have no idea about that. I don't really take any of it seriously (claiming direct descent)
    Ahhh okay I see.

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    Quote Originally Posted by safinator View Post
    I don't want to repeat myself, go take a look about the threads which discuss the I2a1b matter and you will see the arguments (Plenty) against it's presence in the Balkans before Slavic migrations.
    I asked a simle question and I dont intend to search entire forum for those threads. If you are to lazy to answer then give links to threads

    Quote Originally Posted by Stefan_Dusan View Post
    It's very easy. Say there are 100 slavs in Ukraine, 20 of them have I2a and 80 of them have R1a. 10 of those Ukrainians decided to move to the Balkans. They take Balkan women and kill the men. Say out of those 10 Ukrainians who went, 7 of them were I2a and the rest were R1a. Very simple answer but you see how it's easy for it to happen.

    Though I believe I2 came to Balkans before Slavs even existed. But maybe it came from Eastern European populations who would one day become Slavs.
    Did they take genetic tests so they exclusively brought I2? That is impossible. A migration would be a cut from the regular population, meaning if Ukrainians moved to Bosnia, the ones in Bosnia and ones here would have same happlogroups in same numbers. All slavic nations have majority R1a group. You cant deny it. If it is a majority group in all slavic nations then that is a slavic happlogroup. Thus I2, being barely present means nothing in relations to slavs, but points to other people that might have inhabited that area before or at same time.
    You argument is same as if you said mexican indians are Spanish and European due to speaking Spanish, and completely ignoring difference in genetics
    Hi everyone!

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