Are most Latin Americans basically rape prodcuts?

[Mixdguy17]

The topic is not deep honestly. I find it interesting as a matter of fact haha

I dont find offense in it, either, I think most of us know this as a fact for most and its so fsr back it really has no impact at all, but the way he adresses it, is to provoque.

[Peter Parker]

In pred. European countries like Brazil or Puerto Rico more like 10%-15%.

You can't call Brazil a 'pred. European' country. It depends on the region.

I believe that in regions with a more colonial Iberian influence (North & Northeast) there was probably a lot of rape going on.
Not so much in Southern Brazil though.

[Daven]

I dont find offense in it, either, I think most of us know this as a fact for most and its so fsr back it really has no impact at all, but the way he adresses it, is to provoque.

Bro even Iberia had a lot of rape blood. It's one of the reasons why some phenotypes exist there, lol. Rape was the common in all Europe really. It's part of human history. It's just not as recent as in the Latin American case, and of course, not all of it came that way. Probably Latin America has a higher frequency and geography plays a role for all we know.

[Peter Parker]

It's one of the reasons why some phenotypes exist there, lol.

Which phenotypes? Baskid? Atlanto-Med?
And please don't try to mention the Moors - it's getting boring as hell and North African phenotypes basically don't exist in Iberia.

[Daven]

You can't call Brazil a 'pred. European' country. It depends on the region.

I believe that in regions with a more colonial Iberian influence (North & Northeast) there was probably a lot of rape going on.
Not so much in Southern Brazil though.

Well yeah is partially true because the north is different from the south. I agree. But remember it also depends on the state, lol.

On average the country is still pred. European and I mean over 65%.

The Northeast might be more similar to Venezuela, Colombia, Dominican Republic and Mexico when it comes to the amount of rape blood. Places in the Southeast had a lot of slavery though. Rio and Minas Gerais had a founding population composed of Portuguese men and African women. Again, intermarriage was the common between both groups because of the lack of European women. So even in those place the majority of the relationships were consensual.

[Daven]

Which phenotypes? Baskid? Atlanto-Med?
And please don't try to mention the Moors - it's getting boring as hell and North African phenotypes basically don't exist in Iberia.

I knew my post was going to be controversial, LOL. Just to clarify I never implied such thing about the North African phenotypes in Iberia. So please go there.

Anyways, I'm hitting the gym now. Today is my day off and I ain't wasting it haha

[Daven]

Here is a fragment about Brazil. I am posting it because it was a similar scenario in the Hispanic Caribbean:

In eighteenth century Brazil, colonizers and slaves were both overwhelmingly male. Portuguese men had traveled to Brazil alone to seek wealth, as Portuguese women were often banned from migrating. In part due to love affairs and children born between Portuguese men and African and/or mulatta slave women, freed former slaves were predominately female. Stereotypes about non-white women were abundant during the colonial period and while gender, race and color worked together to systemically disadvantage negro women, some individuals—such as Chica—used their perceived hyper-sensuality to invert gender and power relations. Once socially mobile, these women were seen as even more dominant than their masters.

Sex was decisive to the relative facilitated access to freedom and concubinage with white men offered advantages to black women because, once free, they reduced the stigma of color and of slavery for them and for their descendants


A Brazil painting explain better. The African momma thanking God because her mulatta daughter married a Portuguese man and now her quadroon granddaughter is blanqueada. Free slaves females loved to intermarry European men.

[Mixdguy17]

Bro even Iberia had a lot of rape blood. It's one of the reasons why some phenotypes exist there, lol. Rape was the common in all Europe really. It's part of human history. It's just not as recent as in the Latin American case, and of course, not all of it came that way. Probably Latin America has a higher frequency and geography plays a role for all we know.

But he doesnt even mean the moor invasion, he means when the spanish colonized latin america and had children with unwilling native americans and slaves, and he tries to be provocative with it or to hurt others with his comments.

[Daven]

But he doesnt even mean the moor invasion, he means when the spanish colonized latin america and had children with unwilling native americans and slaves.

The Moors weren't the only ones that invaded Iberia at some point. So I'm not exactly sure why he assumed I went there, lol.

[Latinus]

You can't call Brazil a 'pred. European' country. It depends on the region.

I believe that in regions with a more colonial Iberian influence (North & Northeast) there was probably a lot of rape going on.
Not so much in Southern Brazil though.

All Brazilian regions are genetically pred-European, and the diference is not that great, there are more diferences between the Euro imput in diferent parts/social classes of the same state than among regions as a whole.

No Brazilian region is below 50% European imput, even the north and northeast.