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I am really scratching my head on this one. So- let me get this straight:
The connection that makes you think Alexander was r1a is that it's found in Iran, India, etc. (where Alexander's armies went)
Yet, it was eradicated in the current Balkans? But it's not extinct in Greece at all- it still exists and most of it matches with West Slavs of today!
No offense bro, but you should re-think it. There is also autosomal evidence, as well as historical and archaeological. It's about as concrete as anything can be in historical genetics. Proto-Slavs brought it.
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It immediately and simply explains the spread of R1 without any unnecessary presumptions.
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R1a in India and Iran is ancient, it's a different clade it's ancestor of the one in Europe. it's older than the one in Europe.... R1a in Europe came from Iranic tribes and proto-slavs from India and Iran. Not the opposite.
Alexander the greats army wasn't just greeks... He had a lot of Thracians and Illyrians. Actually they might of constituted half of his army, especially Thracians. Ancient-Macedonians are of said to of been by some Illyrians-Thracians mixed with Greeks. Epirotans were also a contact zone between greeks and Illyrians... These things demonstrate greeks are also of Illyrian and Thracian ancestry.
You people are delusional.
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Don't you get it These people are delusional. they want to identify with ''white pride'' and tell themselves some of the greatest people in history were close to them due to some haplogroup... They think R1a is more ''European''
When I am telling you R1a and I2a came from Iranic tribes proto-slavic tribes... atleast R1a in Europe did. East Europe was a melting pot of Iranic, gothic and proto-slavic tribes... they are a result of this and brought it to the balkans, but in their little minds tell themselves Haplogoup E in Europe is less European, because it's ancestors exist outside, in africa, but so does R1a and R1b with that logic, R1a iS INDIAN and R1b IS CAMEROON
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Alexanders army was made up of Illyrians, Thracians and Greeks.... So you're telling me most of these carried R1a? Then where in the balkans is it? Why does it mostly exist where Slavs settled? For example Greek macedonia, it's full of historical records that it was settled by proto-SLavs during byzantium empire, 100,000's atleast. and today R1a is high in these areas.
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R1a was carried by Iranic tribes. I'm not 100% sure of I2a which might of been brought there by Goths, or by Both... Iranic tribes invaded east Europe, such as Scythians and Sarmatians. proto-Serbs and proto-Croats are an example of Proto-slavs mixing with goths and Iranic tribes, they then settled in the Balkans and brought more R1a and I2a with them, some of it already existed from pre settlements such as Goths and Proto-Slavs like the Sclavenis.
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