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Thread: Which is more superior, middle-easterners or eastern-europeans?

  1. #101
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    Quote Originally Posted by Antimage View Post
    In what way?
    Mentally, and physically,

    western european is just a bunch of overweight turtles.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Grab the Gauge View Post
    Page 289 and 290 of A People that Shall Dwell Alone

    https://books.google.com/books?id=4c...A289&lpg=PA289






    The bulk of Ashkenazi verbal IQ ultimately stems from mutations in NOD2/CARD15 which they inherited from Northern Europeans. What it means is that Europeans made Ashkenazi Jews what they are today. Ashkenazi Jews are the ancestors of people expelled from southern Europe and the Levant, who got a refuge in Northern and Central Europe. They benefitted from protection, interbreeding and even occupational discrimination in Europe. They're the result of an experiment, the firsf of its kind, and it would not have been possible anywhere in the world outside of Northern Europe. Without it, Jews today would be an obscure group like Tibetans or the Nagas.
    That is exceptionally contentious and probably inaccurate. We don't understand the workings of intelligence, the brain or genetics at this stage and no serious researcher puts it down to any one gene, let alone that.

    I agree with the rest of the paragraph. Jews were (because of their status as tolerable (ie, non-heretical) non-Christians) encouraged/forced to be usurers, bankers and tradesmen, which effectively killed off their lower class, selected the smarter white-collar ones and flung them into a process of continued intelligence selection. But Northern Europe's influence therein was situational, not genetic, which was your original contention.
    Who is rich? He who is happy with what he has - Simeon ben Zoma, Ethics of the Fathers, Talmud, Avot 4:1

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    Quote Originally Posted by LilOlympi View Post
    Mentally, and physically,

    western european is just a bunch of overweight turtles.
    no

  4. #104
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    Quote Originally Posted by Shah-Jehan View Post
    Sure, but core areas of Central Asia haven't changed at at all (like Balkh in Afghanistan; capital of Bactria, the Ferghana valley of Uzbekistan, location of the ancient cities of Samarqand and Bukhara etc). The Iranic speaking people that still remain, they have pretty much remained the same throughout history and haven't intermarried at all with Turkic and Mongolic tribes (talking about the ones that still speak IE).

    Either way, mongrelized or not, it doesn't explain why Kazakhstan, the heaviest East Asian of all Central Asian countries is the most developed in the region while Tajikistan, the home of these "Caucasoids" is dirt poor. Even if you overlook this, East Asian countries are heavily literate and possess high IQs. If we were into your racist overlooks, then East Asian influence should be a positive thing.

    LOL at the upper castes being mongrlized lol, most South Asian groups only marry among their castes, it is well known, even those that are now Muslim. While if you look at history, the non-Vedic light Caucasoids such as Kushans (Tocharians) or even Scythians were considered Mlecchas and unlike Indo-Aryans, with a barbaric and non-Vedic culture.
    I don't know enough about Central Asia to validate your claims about un-mixed survivors of the East Asian nomads. Nor the history of the Indian caste system.

    My point was that Central Asia was Whiter in the past, not that the East Asian nomads were particularly dysgenic. And all East Asians aren't the same, they are adapted to different lifestyles. The Japanese, Koreans and Chinese being more civilized than their nomadic counterparts.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Antimage View Post
    no
    Yes.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Longbowman View Post
    That is exceptionally contentious and probably inaccurate. We don't understand the workings of intelligence, the brain or genetics at this stage and no serious researcher puts it down to any one gene, let alone that.

    I agree with the rest of the paragraph. Jews were (because of their status as tolerable (ie, non-heretical) non-Christians) encouraged/forced to be usurers, bankers and tradesmen, which effectively killed off their lower class, selected the smarter white-collar ones and flung them into a process of continued intelligence selection. But Northern Europe's influence therein was situational, not genetic, which was your original contention.
    Natural selection and adaptation cannot happen if the appropriate genes aren't available. You've got the source on Ashkenazi verbal genes; it comes from the disease which afflicts Northern Europeans disproportionately. The discmrimination against Jews is one side of the coin; the genes that fostered their resistance to it are another. Northern Europeans gave Jews the foundation for increased verbal ability, their discrimination against them then brought those genes to mutation.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Grab the Gauge View Post
    Natural selection and adaptation cannot happen if the appropriate genes aren't available. You've got the source on Ashkenazi verbal genes; it comes from the disease which afflicts Northern Europeans disproportionately. The discmrimination against Jews is one side of the coin; the genes that fostered their resistance to it are another. Northern Europeans gave Jews the foundation for increased verbal ability, their discrimination against them then brought those genes to mutation.
    That source is not even close to authoritative, nor does it outright state Ashkenazi intelligence is entirely due to that gene. Furthermore Crohn's is not uncommon in southern Europe and its incidence amongst Jews is way beyond northern rates, anyhow. It may well have been picked up in the south. Founder effect negates, one way or the other, the argument that 'gene x is common amongst population y and ergo came from there.'
    Who is rich? He who is happy with what he has - Simeon ben Zoma, Ethics of the Fathers, Talmud, Avot 4:1

    Quote Originally Posted by zhaoyun View Post
    I'll say this once and I don't expect you to ever have me fucking repeat this again.

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    You deleted my post, the truth hurts doesn't it?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Longbowman View Post
    That source is not even close to authoritative, nor does it outright state Ashkenazi intelligence is entirely due to that gene. Furthermore Crohn's is not uncommon in southern Europe and its incidence amongst Jews is way beyond northern rates, anyhow. It may well have been picked up in the south. Founder effect negates, one way or the other, the argument that 'gene x is common amongst population y and ergo came from there.'
    The high incidence of selection for Crohn's disease and its association with verbal IQ is indeed indicitave that this affliction plays a monstrous role in Ashkenazi Verbal intelligence. Since Sephardic Jews have lower incidences of both Crohn's disease and lower verbal IQ, a southern origin is unlikely, though interbreeding between Jews will certainly spread these mutations around. I see no reason why anyone would be so skeptical about it, unless it made them angry.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Lightman View Post
    You deleted my post, the truth hurts doesn't it?
    Couldn't read it through my tears.
    Who is rich? He who is happy with what he has - Simeon ben Zoma, Ethics of the Fathers, Talmud, Avot 4:1

    Quote Originally Posted by zhaoyun View Post
    I'll say this once and I don't expect you to ever have me fucking repeat this again.

    Longbowman isn't just a member, he's a lifestyle.
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