The Germanic marker is I-M170

**wvwvw** · 09-28-2016, 12:31 AM

The Germanic marker is M170 and this places the Germanics in the same M89/213 group as the Hittites and Iranians.

The Iberian/Celtic/Italic marker is M173 which is part of the M09 linage making the closest relatives of the Slavs M17, and Native Americans M45/74.

The Finnic marker is part to the M09 TAT linage which makes them closest relatives to the Huns and Southern Indians. The M09 group also includes the Chinese.

The Pelsasgian Greeks and Phoenicians are part of the YAP M35 linage. They are closely related to 1/3 of the Japanese population.

The Aboriginals, Mongols and Eskimos are part of the RPSY/M216 linage.

The "blond" gene originates from the part of M89/213 linage which does not contain the M09 mutation, i.e. the Hittites, Germanics etc. The ability to digest milk is probably from this linage also.

There were no Germanic tribes in western Europe until 200 BC when they came to the Balkan region of Croatia from Cimmeria on the north coast of the Black Sea.

**wvwvw** · 09-28-2016, 12:36 AM

Genetically speaking the British are 70% of Iberian M173 linage origin and 30% of Germanic M170 linage origin.

Since there was no M170 linage in the British population before the Anglo-Saxons invaded it is clear that the M170 linage came from them. Since the Anglo-Saxons were composed a 50/50 mix of the M170 and M173 linages it is obvious by extrapolation that 2/3 of the people of Britain have to be of Anglo-Saxon decent.

The Celtic genetic marker is part of the M173 linage and this makes up the majority of the population of central western Europe (Rhone/Rhine/Danube)which is where the Celts lived according to Apollonius writhing in c.735 BC.

**wvwvw** · 09-28-2016, 12:46 AM

Germanic and Celtic are not linguistic but tribal terms. The original language of the Celts who all originated from Iberia was Basque up until they came into contact with the Greeks in Minoan times.

The Germans, Celts and Slavs are described as specific tribal groups by Greek and Latin authors. EVERYTHING about their tribal origins and their movements is known for the past 3500 years because it is recorded in literature. Prior to 1200 BC the Celts were a single undiluted tribal grouping carrying the M173 lineage who came from Iberia. Prior to 200 BC the Germanics were single undiluted tribal grouping carrying the M170 lineage who came from Cimmeria. Prior to 600 BC the Slavs undiluted tribal grouping carrying the M17 lineage who came from Central Asia and originally spoke a Dravidic-Altaic-Uralic dialect.

When using the term Germanic I am using Tacitus definition of who they were in his time NOT who you think they are now since today the people of Germany are mixed with the Celts whose land the seized. In respect of the Slavs I am referring to Cyril and Methoditus historic account and not to the Poles or Croats of today who are of nearly 50/50 of mixed Slav and Germanic linages, and in respect of the Celts I am using Apollonius historic account of who the were an not to any modern mixed lineages. The inhabitants of Greece were already of mixed lineages since Minoan times 5000 years ago. There were no Germanics in Celtic lands until 200 BC.

The Germanics are part of the M89 lineage which does not contain the M09 mutation, and thus they originated from the same linage as the Hittites and Iranians. Therefore the came from Syria. The M170 mutation occurred in Syria and its carriers moved to Asia anti-clockwise 15,000 years ago.

The Cimmerians came from Asia which is consistent with the origin of the Germanic tribes.

**wvwvw** · 09-28-2016, 12:52 AM

It is the Germanic identifying marker and apears in all the places the Germanic tribe are recorded to have been amongst the markers of the earlier inhabitants. The fact that Tacitus said all the Germanics looked the same indicates that they were an unmixed racial group up until Roman times which is when they subsumed the Celts in what is now Germany and thus formed what became the Anglo-Saxon tribes. In the Balkans the Germanics remained mostly untainted except by the 3 main markers of the Greeks and Illyrians to about 20% until the Slavs came along in 600 AD. There is a grater proportion of the M170 marker in the Croats than in Germany, so its no wonder they supported Hitler in WW2.

Going by Tacitus description of the Germanics it is almost certain that they were purely M170 until the fall of Rome.

From that it is implicit that the Celts and Slavs must have been pure racial groups also.

The Chinese for example even today are 99% from one single linage.

Since the Slavs originated from Asia you would have expected other Asian DNA markers in all Slavic populations if they had mixed with the other Asian groups before they came to the Balkans in 600 AD, but this is not the case. No other Asian markers, Mongol, Hunza or Finnic exist in any Balkan Slavic groups to any significant degree. If the main Slavic body (excluding those which migrated to northern India in 2000 BC) did not mix with other Asian populations why should it have mixed with the Germanics before the Slavs came to the Balkans in 600 AD.

The indications are that the Slavs were originally part of the Basque language group 20,000 years ago before the appearance of the M17 linage.

The maind body of the original M173 linage had by then migrated to Iberia and became the ancestors of the Celts and Italics.

The Slavs then joined the Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric language identity untill 1400 BC when the Hittite-Iranian M89 linage conquered India. Thus the 3 cast system was formed, Dravidians being the lower cast followed by Slavs and Hittite-Iranians.

This Hittite-Iranian invasion forced the main body of the Slavs into the Ukraine which displaced the M89-M170 Germanics into Circaria a fraction of whom became the Scythes who forced the M173+M89 Hellenes into Greece.

From Indo-Iranian Sanskrit then evolved.

After this the Muslims attacked Asia which forced the Slavs into the Balkans in 600 AD merging with the Germanics who had reached the Balkans by 200 BC. The Slavs then changed their language change to became part of the Slavo-Germanic group. Eventually with Byzantine help they conquered the Muslims in Asia probably in 800 AD and took Russia.

**wvwvw** · 09-28-2016, 12:59 AM

The Chinese are descended from the same M09 linage as the Iberiain-Slavs and Hunza-Dravidians. All of these have absolutely no direct relation to the Mongols who are a completely different linage (RPSY/M216) which is the same as that of the Aboriginals and Eskimos who were in Asia before anyone else.

The fact is that the Chinese chose to stay separate from other tribes and so evolved into a sub linage, as did the Hunza-Dravidians, Iberians and Slavs.

There is an overlap of three separate lineages in India M89, M17 and M09 (excluding M173) which explains the cast system very well and gives us the precise date when the main body of the Slavs who did not mix with the Dravidians who were living in Afghanistan (2000 BC). It also tells us that the main Slav body were out of Afghanistan by 1400 BC when the M89 linage conquered India.

The M17 linage is a descendent of M173 which has a frequency of something like 98% in Basques. Since the Basques were an Isolated population it is obvious that Basque was the original language of all the entire M173 linage, unless of course you wish to postulate that the Basques were all speechless until 3,000 years ago which is highly unlikely. You will also probably find that Basque is closest to the Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric language group, since it is defiantly not indo-European which is part of the Greco-Phoenician super language group.

**wvwvw** · 09-28-2016, 01:08 AM

The fact is that 50% of the population of Central Asia (which is Altaic) carries the M17 Slavic marker as does 1/3 of the population of Northern India which spoke Dravidian up until 1400 BC when it was conquered by Dionysus' Greeks and the indo-European Hittite-Iranians.

The Slavs were not part of the Indo-European language group but part of the Basque-Sumerian-Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric super group. The Finns who are part of this language group are also part of the same super genetic linage as the Slavs.

ALL of the speakers of the Basque-Sumerian-Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric super language are part of the M09 genetic linage, Chinese (M09-M174/241), Dravidians, Hunza, Turks, (M09), Finns (M09-TAT), Iberians, Slavs (M09-M45/74-M173 & M17) and finally Native Americans (M09-M45/74).

Since ALL of the other members of the M09 lineage speak a Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric language it is blatantly obvious that the Slavs and Iberians must have been part of that language group also since all of these people evolved in Asia at the same time from the same single ancestor 20,000 years ago. They cannot have all been mute until 3000 years ago. They must have communicated by speaking the same language as their fathers and the Basque-Sumerian-Dravidian-Altaic-Ugric super language is the best candidate for that language.

Since the Celts were part of the Iberian M173 linage they cannot have spoken and indo-European language until 5000 years ago when they came into contact with the Pelasgian Greek Minoans who were of mixed M89 and YAP linage and spoke Greek.

The Germanics were probably the first to split from the Greco-Phoenician super group in Anatolia at about the time that the M170 linage diverged from M89, 13,000 years ago and migrated to Circaria. The Anatolians and Pelasgians split from the group about 10,000 years ago when one group of Pelasgians (YAP linage) migrated across the Mediterranean coastline to Cyprus and Greece and spread agriculture where they went and the other founded the Egyptian civilisation.

5000 years ago the Pelasgians and one group of Anatolians combined forces to form the Minoan Greek civilisation which spread the Greek language to the Italo-Celts and Hellenes in the north. 3000 years ago the Hellenes migrated south with the Minoans.

Of the remainder of the Anatolians one group went on to become Hittites, and another the Iranians about 5000 years ago. Both groups were of the same M89 linage and the Minoans.

20,000 years ago was the time when the Assyro-Babylonian Acadian language group diverged from the Greco-Phoenician super group. These people were from another M89 linage different from the Anatolian linage.

(Anatolia in the context of this discussion includes all of Syria and Palestine, which were together known as Asia to the Greeks)

**Dick** · 09-28-2016, 01:09 AM

< I-M170 STRONK. WHERE IS R1ETHEL AND HIS GOONS

**wvwvw** · 09-28-2016, 01:21 AM

Humans were capable of speech 135,000 years ago which is when language evolved. Those that came to Asia 30,000 years ago, the M09 linage obviously had a common ancestral language which the used to communicate.

20,000 years ago the Chinese linage split from the main M09 linage and went into isolation, as did the Finnic, Hunza and other lineages again because of population isolation.

Since the Chinese language is part of the Altaic-Ugric group as is Finnish and due to the fact that the Chinese are 99% from just one linage it is obvious to even an ignoramus that the ONLY way that these languages could be related is if the ancestors of the Chinese and Finns spoke the same language, i.e. the M09's all spoke the same language at least 20,000 years ago, since NO racial mixing occurred in China and NO Chinese linage is found mixed with the Dravidians or Finnns.

Since this is the case for the two furthest M09 lineages separated by thousands of miles then it must also be true for all the other M09 lineages which evolved in Asia, the Hunza-Dravidians and the Iberian-Slavs. All were part of the Basque-Dravidian-Sumerian-Altaic-Ugric super language group 20,000 years ago. Even the American Indians who are also M09's ARE Altaic-Ugric speakers.

A similar scenario applies to the people of the Middle East, Anatolia and Europe. 20,000 ago all of these people were part of the Greco-Phoenician super language group. All of the ancient writers were fully aware of this fact.