The Germanic marker is I-M170

[Peterski]

There were NO SUCH THINGS as Indo-Europeans.

Muahahahaha. Stop lying. We were, we are, and we will always be:

[wvwvw]

Muahahahaha. Stop lying. We were, we are, and we will always be:

I am referring to the language family.

[wvwvw]

The Indo-European language was direct descendent of WRITTEN GREEK (over 70% of it), WRITTEN MAEONIAN and WRITTEN HITTITE and WRITTEN IRANIAN and developed though the mutual interaction of these cultures !

Greek was passed on the other European cultures by use of writing and these culture modified Greek to replace their original languages. The proof of this is the fact that all Europeans use the GREEK ALPHABET !

The indo-European language was developed by the people who lived in Greece, Anatolia and Iraq who were of the M172 and M35 linages. These were the first people to develop writing and civilisation and the first to export writing to other people they came into contact with.

Latin came about when the Tyrrhenians settled in Italy followed by Mycenaean Greeks.

Sanskrit came about when the Persians invaded India.

Slavic came about when the Slavs invade the Balkans and mixed with earlier Germanic tribes.

Germanic came about when Germanic tribes invaded the Balkans and mixed with the Thracians. German is a dialect of Greek down to it very 
basics. The Germans were not speaking German until about 350 AD. They had a limited vocabulary since they were nomadic hunter gatherers. They were nomads who had no cities and no states. Where was the Germanic Homer. Where was their Plato and Aristotle 
and their Pindar, and Aristophanes and Euripides and Sophocles and Aesshlesu 
and their Anaxagoras and Parmenides. The Germanic tribes had no need for a 
complex langue since they had no idea of what to express in it. So all the IE terms related to agriculture, philosophy, science and so on, entered IE via Greeks. 90% of the words in the Gothic bible are direct imports 
from Greek.

The Greeks first speaed their 
language throught Europeas through their ocntold of the sea with Minoans, then Myceaneans, Classical Greeks and Byzantines. That is why 
everyone adopted Greek names for the numbers so that everyone one would know 
exactly home much of each commodity they were buying or selling.

[Danaan]

Rethel tries to not respond to stupidity...

Noone never heard in Heimat about such stupidity
as I-M170=German, neither in very liberal Scandia...

True tacitian Germanian is only R1. Das ist alles.
All I-men are of pre-Germanic pedegree, not IE.

The Hun-Basque-Dravidian R1 has nothing to do with the noble authentically Germanic I-M170, you Hun-Basque-Dravidian.

[Ülev]

as I already told - R1 -the Huns of Europe, lol, be proud, do not deny

[wvwvw]

Because Greeks had not one, but several global Empires their language had a big impact on both European and Asiatic languages.

Τhe world famous Jewish linguist Joseph Isaak Yahuda claims that both Hebrew and Arabic are heavily influenced by Greek. In his book HEBREW IS GREEK, he claims:

"Overwhelming evidence proves conclusively that Biblical Hebrew is camouflaged Greek in grammar as well as vocabulary so...the difference between them is a matter of pronunciation. So much that Hebrew cannot be properly understood except through Greek."

[Norb]

its R1a and R1b

[Wrong]

its R1a and R1b

This.

One I1 man was incorporated in them later, in the early Iron Age.

[Jana]

I1 took part in Germanic ethnogenesis (with R1b/R1a), so yes.

[Dick]

This.

One I1 man was incorporated in them later, in the early Iron Age.

And then you woke up.

I1 took part in Germanic ethnogenesis (with R1b/R1a), so yes.

Yup which is why 40% of Germanic Language is of non indo European origin