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Thread: The Uralic languages thread

  1. #31
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    Quote Originally Posted by Szegedist View Post
    Nobody asked you to come to this thread and spread your fascistic ideology.
    Said fasist about nonfasist.

    I can come to whaever thread I want to.
    You do not have to be hear. Go away, if
    you do not like me. Noone makes you to
    stay. You are free to leave.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    Hypothesises, which are constantly changing,
    as, for example, this what Dunai showed shows.



    No, you don't.
    You are interested side in some white
    Hungolian continiuity whatever dream.



    Only, becasue you do not some things, or you can't
    think, or your bizzare nationalism is blinded you - it
    doesnt mean, that I invent something. It is very hard
    to invent genetic data from ancient burial sites.
    Look who is talking, you are projecting your own fascistic ultranationalist views onto others , as we can see from this thread.
    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    I can come to whaever thread I want to.
    You do not have to be hear. Go away, if
    you do not like me. Noone makes you to
    stay. You are free to leave.
    This thread is about Uralic languages, so far the only thing you did is troll and attack others, even Dunai whose only crime was posting some academic writing.

  3. #33
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    Dunai, don't be butthurt, you are not a Hungolian
    anyway... so, clam down, and learn Slovak
    I posted the current stance of the linguistic scientific world regarding the origin of Proto-Uralic. It is clearly stated that it was first spoken around the Uralic Mountains region, 4000 years ago. The origin of the N haplogroup (characteristic to Proto-Uralic people) goes way back, 20.000 years ago into South-East Asia, but would that put the origin of the Uralic languages into South-East Asia? Could you be this unreasonable?


  4. #34
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    They have also more speakers in Americas,
    than in Europe, soonly they can have more
    speakers in Africa also.... and what?
    Uralic language family is not something I would associate with Asia.

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    It is not accepted by many scholars, that Samoyedic is related to Finno-Ugric languages. So Finno-Ugric is a better term, while Uralic includes the dubious Samoyedic connection.

    Either way, Finno-Ugric languages are indigenous to Northern/Eastern Europe.

  6. #36
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    Quote Originally Posted by Szegedist View Post
    It is not accepted by many scholars, that Samoyedic is related to Finno-Ugric languages. So Finno-Ugric is a better term, while Uralic includes the dubious Samoyedic connection.

    Either way, Finno-Ugric languages are indigenous to Northern/Eastern Europe.
    "The validity of Finno-Ugric as a genetic grouping is under challenge,[4] with some feeling that the Finno-Permic languages are as distinct from the Ugric languages as they are from the Samoyedic languages spoken in Siberia, or even that none of the Finno-Ugric, Finno-Permic, or Ugric branches has been established. Received opinion has been that the easternmost (and last-discovered) Samoyed had separated first and the branching into Ugric and Finno-Permic took place later, but this reconstruction does not have strong support in the linguistic data. In the past, and occasionally today as well, the term Finno-Ugric was used for the entire Uralic language family."

    Many modern linguists don't consider the Ugric branch as valid anymore, but consider Hungarian, Khanty and Mansi as separate languages, breaking away directly from Proto-Uralic as standalone languages, thus there was no more Finno-Ugric and later Ugric intermediate periods.

  7. #37
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    R1a was Ugric, Hungarians were baptized first and saved their language, R1ethelians were dominated once by I2a Goths and Vandals and their language changed. Later all R1a people were christianized so slavicised by language. So R1ethelians should say hallo to brothers/fathers Hungarians!

    The same with R1b asian people, their language changed because of J (latin) and I1 people (germanic)

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    Quote Originally Posted by Dunai View Post
    I posted the current stance of the linguistic scientific world regarding the origin of Proto-Uralic. It is clearly stated that it was first spoken around the Uralic Mountains region, 4000 years ago.
    And what they speak earlier? It wasn't Uralic?

    The origin of the N haplogroup (characteristic to Proto-Uralic people) goes way back, 20.000 years ago into South-East Asia, but would that put the origin of the Uralic languages into South-East Asia? Could you be this unreasonable?
    1. 20.000 definitly not calendar years - but even if, whats a big deal?
    Did time changed then into not Ns and not speakers of their own language?
    2. I said about Manchuria something like 3-5k years ago.
    3. If this is true, that Ntribe originated in Yunnan, then ofcourse, I
    will put the origin there! Where should I according to you? In America?
    4. Why you all are so affraid of being chinese - they are very inteligent people.
    5. PraUralians made one of the most advanced civilisation of their times. If you
    want to cut their roots, then you will left them, only tayga hunters-gatherers.

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    Chinese are not Manchurians, it's a different race.

    Even if N was found in the area that today corresponds to Manchuria, it does not mean that they were related to Manchurians or Han Chinese

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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    And what they speak earlier? It wasn't Uralic?



    1. 20.000 definitly not calendar years - but even if, whats a big deal?
    Did time changed then into not Ns and not speakers of their own language?
    2. I said about Manchuria something like 3-5k years ago.
    3. If this is true, that Ntribe originated in Yunnan, then ofcourse, I
    will put the origin there! Where should I according to you? In America?
    4. Why you all are so affraid of being chinese - they are very inteligent people.
    5. PraUralians made one of the most advanced civilisation of their times. If you
    want to cut their roots, then you will left them, only tayga hunters-gatherers.
    The N haplogroup people started migrating westwards from East Siberia 8-10.000 years ago (check my map from a previous post), so approximately 5000 years before the Proto-Uralic languages have formed. There is no scientifically accepted theory how did the Pre-Proto-Uralic language sounded like, and to which other languages was it related to. In prehistory many languages started out as language isolates from one another, as many groups lived in seclusion from one another for large periods of times. The same thing can be presumed about Proto-Uralic, as it shows no similarity to Paleosiberian or Altaic languages in vocabulary.

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