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Look who is talking, you are projecting your own fascistic ultranationalist views onto others , as we can see from this thread.
This thread is about Uralic languages, so far the only thing you did is troll and attack others, even Dunai whose only crime was posting some academic writing.
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I posted the current stance of the linguistic scientific world regarding the origin of Proto-Uralic. It is clearly stated that it was first spoken around the Uralic Mountains region, 4000 years ago. The origin of the N haplogroup (characteristic to Proto-Uralic people) goes way back, 20.000 years ago into South-East Asia, but would that put the origin of the Uralic languages into South-East Asia? Could you be this unreasonable?
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It is not accepted by many scholars, that Samoyedic is related to Finno-Ugric languages. So Finno-Ugric is a better term, while Uralic includes the dubious Samoyedic connection.
Either way, Finno-Ugric languages are indigenous to Northern/Eastern Europe.
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"The validity of Finno-Ugric as a genetic grouping is under challenge,[4] with some feeling that the Finno-Permic languages are as distinct from the Ugric languages as they are from the Samoyedic languages spoken in Siberia, or even that none of the Finno-Ugric, Finno-Permic, or Ugric branches has been established. Received opinion has been that the easternmost (and last-discovered) Samoyed had separated first and the branching into Ugric and Finno-Permic took place later, but this reconstruction does not have strong support in the linguistic data. In the past, and occasionally today as well, the term Finno-Ugric was used for the entire Uralic language family."
Many modern linguists don't consider the Ugric branch as valid anymore, but consider Hungarian, Khanty and Mansi as separate languages, breaking away directly from Proto-Uralic as standalone languages, thus there was no more Finno-Ugric and later Ugric intermediate periods.
R1a was Ugric, Hungarians were baptized first and saved their language, R1ethelians were dominated once by I2a Goths and Vandals and their language changed. Later all R1a people were christianized so slavicised by language. So R1ethelians should say hallo to brothers/fathers Hungarians!
The same with R1b asian people, their language changed because of J (latin) and I1 people (germanic)
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And what they speak earlier? It wasn't Uralic?
1. 20.000 definitly not calendar years - but even if, whats a big deal?The origin of the N haplogroup (characteristic to Proto-Uralic people) goes way back, 20.000 years ago into South-East Asia, but would that put the origin of the Uralic languages into South-East Asia? Could you be this unreasonable?
Did time changed then into not Ns and not speakers of their own language?
2. I said about Manchuria something like 3-5k years ago.
3. If this is true, that Ntribe originated in Yunnan, then ofcourse, I
will put the origin there! Where should I according to you? In America?
4. Why you all are so affraid of being chinese - they are very inteligent people.
5. PraUralians made one of the most advanced civilisation of their times. If you
want to cut their roots, then you will left them, only tayga hunters-gatherers.
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Chinese are not Manchurians, it's a different race.
Even if N was found in the area that today corresponds to Manchuria, it does not mean that they were related to Manchurians or Han Chinese
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The N haplogroup people started migrating westwards from East Siberia 8-10.000 years ago (check my map from a previous post), so approximately 5000 years before the Proto-Uralic languages have formed. There is no scientifically accepted theory how did the Pre-Proto-Uralic language sounded like, and to which other languages was it related to. In prehistory many languages started out as language isolates from one another, as many groups lived in seclusion from one another for large periods of times. The same thing can be presumed about Proto-Uralic, as it shows no similarity to Paleosiberian or Altaic languages in vocabulary.
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