Jesus was not jewish ???

**gültekin** · 07-15-2017, 07:58 AM

Originally Posted by Pulsa Dinura

He identified Himself as the Messiah (Mk. 14:61-62) and as we know from the Bible, the Messiah should be from David's seed.

Jesus is a descendant of the Jewish king David: "Remember Jesus Christ, risen from the dead, of the seed of David, according to my Good News." (2Tim. 2:8)

He was from the Tribe of Judah, His earthly father was descended from David (Matt. 1:6-16) and His mother was as well (Luke 1:27, 32-34, 3:23-31)

interesting, how was he be a seed of some one, when he was born from Mary without an earthly father ?

**Enflamme** · 07-15-2017, 07:58 AM

I've this book (Benjamin Freedman - Les Khazars, les faux hébreux), i quote:

"During His lifetime here on earth Jesus was not regarded by Pontius Pilate nor by the Judeans among whom He dwelt as "King of the Jews". The inscription on the Cross upon which Jesus was Crucified has been incorrectly translated into the English language only since the 18thcentury. Pontius Pilate was ironic and sarcastic when he ordered inscribed upon the Cross the Latin words "Iesus Nazarenus Rex Iudeorum". About to be Crucified, with the approval of Pontius Pilate, Jesus was being mocked by Pontius Pilate. Pontius Pilate was well aware at thattime that Jesus had been denounced, defied and denied by the Judeans who alas finally brought about His Crucifixion as related by history.Except for His few followers at that time in Judea all other Judeans abhorred Jesus anddetested His teachings and the things for which He stood. That deplorable fact cannot beerased from history by time. Pontius Pilate was himself the "ruler" of the Judeans at the timehe ordered inscribed upon the Cross in Latin words "Iesus Nazarenus Rex Iudeorum", In English "Jesus the Nazarene Ruler of the Judeans". But Pontius Pilate never referred to himself as "ruler" of the Judeans. The ironic and sarcastic reference of Pontius Pilate to Jesus as "Rulerof the Judeans" can hardly be accepted as recognition by Pontius Pilate of Jesus as "Ruler of the Judeans". That is inconceivable by any interpretation"

Also:

"Jesus is referred as a so-called "Jew" for the first time in the New Testament in the 18thcentury. Jesus is first referred to as a so-called "Jew" in the revised 18th century editions in theEnglish language of the 14th century first translations of the New Testament into English. Thehistory of the origin of the word "Jew" in the English language leaves no doubt that the 18thcentury "Jew" is the 18th century contracted and corrupted English word for the 4th century Latin "Iudaeus" found in St. Jerome's Vulgate Edition. Of that there is no longer doubt. The available manuscripts from the 4th century to the 18th century accurately trace the originand give the complete history of the word "Jew" in the English language. In these manuscriptsare to be found all the many earlier English equivalents extending through the 14 centuriesfrom the 4th to the 18th century. From the Latin "Iudaeus" to the English "Jew" these Englishforms included successively: "Gyu", "Giu", "Iu", "Iuu", "Iuw", "Ieuu", "Ieuy", "Iwe", "Iow","Iewe", "leue", "Iue", "Ive", "lew", and then finally in the 18th century, "Jew". The many earlierEnglish equivalents for "Jews" through the 14 centuries are "Giwis", "Giws", "Gyues", "Gywes","Giwes", "Geus", "Iuys", "Iows", "Iouis", "Iews", and then also finally in the 18th century,"Jews". With the rapidly expanding use in England in the 18th century for the first time in history of the greatly improved printing presses unlimited quantities of the New Testament were printed.These revised 18th century editions of the earlier 14th century first translations into the English language were then widely distributed throughout England and the English speaking worldamong families who had never possessed a copy of the New Testament in any language. Inthese 18th century editions with revisions the word "Jew" appeared for the first time in any English translations. The word "Jew" as it was used in the 18th century editions has sincecontinued in use in all elections of the New Testament in the English language. The use of the word "Jew" thus was stabilized.

As you know, my dear Dr. Goldstein, the best known 18th century editions of the New Testament in English are the Rheims (Douai) Edition and the King James Authorized Edition.The Rheims (Douai) translation of the New Testament into English was first printed in 1582 but the word "Jew" did not appear in it. The King James Authorized translation of the New Testament into English was begun in 1604 and first published in 1611. The word "Jew" did notappear in it either. The word "Jew" appeared in both these well known editions in their 18thcentury revised versions for the first times.

Countless copies of the revised 18th century editions of the Rheims (Douai) and the King Jamestranslations of the New Testament into English were distributed to the clergy and the laity throughout the English speaking world. They did not know the history of the origin of theEnglish word "Jew" nor did they care. They accepted the English word "Jew" as the only and asthe accepted form of the Latin "Iudaeus" and the Greek "Ioudaios". How could they be expectedto have known otherwise? The answer is they could not and they did not. It was a new English word to them.

When you studied Latin in your school days you were taught that the letter "I" in Latin whenused as the first letter in a word is pronounced like the letter "Y" in English when it is the firstletter in words like "yes", "youth" and "yacht". The "I" in "Iudaeus" is pronounced like the "Y"in "yes", "youth", and "yacht" in English. In all the 4th century to 18th century forms for the18th century "Jew" the letter "I" was pronounced like the English "Y" in "yes", "youth", and"yacht". The same is true of the "Gi" or the "Gy" where it was used in place of the letter "I"."

"Iesus Nazarenus Rex Iudeorum" not means >>> "King of the Jews" = incorrectly translated into the English language

Iudeorum = Judeans, not "Jews".

**~~Herr Abubu~~** · 07-15-2017, 08:09 AM

Originally Posted by gültekin

interesting, how was he be a seed of some one, when he was born from Mary without an earthly father ?

Because Joseph was his earthly father by the law and by virtue of raising him up.

**gültekin** · 07-15-2017, 08:16 AM

Originally Posted by Herr Abubu

Because Joseph was his earthly father by the law and by virtue of raising him up.

genetically he wasn't the seed of david, so how can he be messiah ?

**~~Herr Abubu~~** · 07-15-2017, 08:18 AM

Originally Posted by gültekin

genetically he wasn't the seed of david, so how can he be messiah ?

He was the inheritor of David's throne both through law and through blood. Through Joseph he was the legal inheritor and through Mary he was David's seed. What's very important is that Joseph's lineage, which was that of Jeroboam, whose seed had been cursed by God, son of Solomon. Anyone with this blood couldn't inherit from David His kingdom. However, this was still the kingly line, which is why Jesus is legally son of Joseph and genetically son of Mary, also a descendant of David but through Nathan son of David but not inheritor of the throne.