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So lately this Forum has a dilemma: is the Northerh influence in Greeks Indo-European or Slavic?
1) Why not from Celts? Celtic invading tribes had even reached Peloponnese at one point.
2) Why don't they claim that is Germanic? For example, northern Greece was overrun by Germanic tribes, at one point they even reached Athens.
3) Anyone who has studied Byzantine history knows that the Byzantines slaughtered and expelled the Slavs who invaded Greece and settled them in Asia Minor other massacres followed, since the Slavs were rebellious and the Byzantines didn't like that.
But in my opinion, northern influence in Greece is a result of Indo-Europeans. I don't think that Celts and Germanics left many genetic traces in Greece, and as I said previously, the Byzantines eventually expelled the invading Slavs.
Discuss.
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