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Dude, it's the other way around. Indo-Europeans came from North-Eastern Europe, and Greeks themselves are Indo-Europeans regardless on the fact that they don't have much steppe ancestry themselves, and they're mostly derived from pre-indo-European native peoples of South-Eastern Europe.
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I dont understand the point of this thread. Indo-European is a linguistic category, which Greek falls under. The Mycenaeans were the first inhabitants in Greece to speak the Greek language, making them Indo-Europeans. We dont know what language the Minoans spoke, but it seems plausible that it was a linguistic isolate, similar to Basque today. The two groups however, despite their linguistic differences, are similar in genetic composition, the difference being higher amounts of steppe ancestry in the Mycenaeans.
There really isn't much more to it.
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It's interesting, how long some people going to keep believing in absolutely groundless "steppe urheimat" indo-European theory?
I guess this phenomenon or form of mass insanity directly has to do with aggressive unalternative points of view which have been imposed with very obsessive style, like Eupedia did it for example.
DE OPPRESSO LIBER
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https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=C4JPMYHTZis
this for rethel
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myceneans were indo european
they had significant steppe admixture
Mycenaean
Minoan_Lasithi 0.786±0.049
Sintashta 0.214±0.049
P-value 0.96574059
chisq 6.030
Full output
Mycenaean
Corded_Ware_Germany 0.210±0.043
Minoan_Lasithi 0.790±0.043
P-value 0.961238695
chisq 6.198
Full output
Mycenaean
Minoan_Lasithi 0.791±0.043
Srubnaya 0.209±0.043
P-value 0.950419642
chisq 6.558
Full output
http://eurogenes.blogspot.co.il/2017...ycenaeans.html
regards
adam
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