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What is the point of comparing divorce in non-Muslim and Muslim countries, where there’s gender inequality in matters of marriage (several wives for men, etc.), divorce, inheritance, testimony, etc.?
Ex.:
“This article argues that according to the majority of Muslim jurists, a woman cannot obtain khul without the consent of her husband. […] On 27 May 2015, [in Pakistan]Mawlana Muhammad Khan Shirani, Chairman CII, opined that 'courts should refrain from dissolving 'nikah' (marriage contract) in the name of 'khula' or separation.' He argued that '[k]hula is an agreement between two parties and it should not be granted until the husband agrees to it.”
https://sahsol.lums.edu.pk/law-journ...ystem-pakistan
“In Bangladesh, sharia law goes hand in hand with the statutory laws of the land. These laws are both conjointly used to regulate and monitor the issues of divorce among Muslims of the country. Orthodox Islamic laws provide husbands with the authority of issuing divorce or talaq to their wives known as Talaq-e-Tawfiz (popularly known as tawfiz) in the kabinnama (the written document of the contract of marriage). Women’s power to exercise the tawfiz, however, depends solely on the will of their husbands. Although Muslim women are capable of repudiating their marriages by the process of khula or mubarat, these are only executable under the free consent of their husbands.”
https://vc.bridgew.edu/jiws/vol21/iss6/4/
And where do you get what you say from concerning drug abuse? Because there’s actually no reliable data in Muslim countries concerning that topic. And there are several Muslim countries that are well known for their huge problems linked to the use of drugs.https://quod.lib.umich.edu/j/jmmh/10...;view=fulltext
What I now for sure is that in Western Europe, North African gangs are great specialists in dealing drugs.
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