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Thread: The Kingdom of Pannonia was actually indoeuropean until 1867...

  1. #11
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Name_of_Hungary#Pannonia

    Later, the territory of the medieval Kingdom of Hungary included that of former Pannonia, and Medieval Latin transferred the denomination of Pannonia to the territory of the Kingdom of Hungary. Further, the King of Hungary was given the title of Rex Pannoniae ("King of Pannonia") and Rex Pannonicorum ("King of the Pannonians").


    But it is wrong designation, because majority of Kingdom of Hungary was located outside of the historical Panonnia.


    Of course not, BUT the STATE was speaking latin and later german.
    And btw, the huge majrity of inhabitants were IE speakers anyway.
    '' the huge majrity of inhabitants were IE speakers anyway''

    Wrong. It is just your fantasy. Nobody ever heard for such fantasy.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    But also: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%C3%9Cgyek

    Ügek, the noblest chieftain of Scythia descending from the great house of Magog,
    took to wife in Dentumoger the daughter of Prince Eunedubelian, called Emese, from whom
    he begot a son, who was named Álmos.

    Not only Scythia is IE, but the more Magog, son of Japheth, the forefather of IEs.
    Those are just the romantic legends (both the Hun or Schyntian ancestry). Most likely house of Árpád was Turkic origin.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Stears View Post
    [/I]But it is wrong designation, because majority of Kingdom of Hungary was located outside of the historical Panonnia.
    It doesn;t change the fact, that majority was called like that.

    Btw, 90% of Poland lies outside of real Poland and historically
    almost 97%+ lied outside of it - and what? Still was called Poland.

    '' the huge majrity of inhabitants were IE speakers anyway''

    Wrong. It is just your fantasy. Nobody ever heard for such fantasy.
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magyarization

    For a long time, number of non-Hungarians that lived in the Kingdom of Hungary was much larger than a number of ethnic Hungarians. According to the 1787 data, the population of the Kingdom of Hungary numbered 2,322,000 Hungarians (29%) and 5,681,000 non-Hungarians (71%). In 1809, the population numbered 3,000,000 Hungarians (30%) and 7,000,000 non-Hungarians (70%). As an increasingly intense Magyarization policy was implemented after 1867.[47]

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    Quote Originally Posted by Stears View Post
    Those are just the romantic legends (both the Hun or Schyntian ancestry).
    Did I say differently? But legend was then a fact. Almost.
    And people described themselves as legend says, beliving
    in that, what made it a fact then.

    Most likely house of Árpád was Turkic origin.
    What makes strong probability if R1-indoeurpeanness anyway.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    It doesn;t change the fact, that majority was called like that.

    Btw, 90% of Poland lies outside of real Poland and historically
    almost 97%+ lied outside of it - and what? Still was called Poland.



    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magyarization

    For a long time, number of non-Hungarians that lived in the Kingdom of Hungary was much larger than a number of ethnic Hungarians. According to the 1787 data, the population of the Kingdom of Hungary numbered 2,322,000 Hungarians (29%) and 5,681,000 non-Hungarians (71%). In 1809, the population numbered 3,000,000 Hungarians (30%) and 7,000,000 non-Hungarians (70%). As an increasingly intense Magyarization policy was implemented after 1867.[47]
    Before the Mongol and Ottoman massacres, Kingdom of Hungary was absolute majority ethnic Hungarian.

    But after the requnquista, abandoned areas were settled with the foreign people (German collonists, Serbian refugees, Vlach migrants etc) who enjoy much better life than what they have in their old homelands.
    However, we were too tolerant with the agressive minorities - have we press them hard like the western European have (France, England, Germany), today Kingdom of Hungary would still be in one piece.

    Deal with it.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Stears View Post
    Before the Mongol and Ottoman massacres, Kingdom of Hungary was absolute majority ethnic Hungarian.
    1. How do you know this?
    2. Anyway, even if, factors 1-3, 5-11 still apply.
    3. Supposed majority would be in majority maguarized locals or Iranians,
    and even if not, then they would not influence the state at all, as the
    state were Arpads and nobility, and they were as rest of points state.

    today Kingdom of Hungary would still be in one piece.

    Deal with it.
    But is not. Deal with it.

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    The correct name for "Poland" is Großdeutsches Reich , where Polacks like Rhetard were toilet cleaners for their superior German masters.

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