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Thread: Mongolian and Indo-European language similarities

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    I actually have NO doubt in the ultimate relatedness of the languages. Nostratic and Greenberg's 'Eurasian' have long intrigued me. I am just sceptical of the survival of such a full array of parallels after so long a time, in the tens of millennia.

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    Default The Indo-European family and the criteria to recognize an Indo-European language

    Indo-European languages of the Centum Group (Western Indo-European)



    Indo-European languages of the Satem Group (Eastern Indo-European)



    The Indo-European linguistic family is divided in two branches, a Western branch that shows that the Italic languages, the Germanic languages, the Celtic languages and Hellenic share a grade of relation between each others stronger than with the Eastern Indo-European languages. So, Slavic and Baltic are more related with Albanian, Armenian and Indo-Aryan languages than with the Western Indo-European languages.

    Criteria that a language must own to be considered Indo-European

    1)The Indo-European languages are flexive. A language can be flexive (like Latin, Greek and Urgermanisch), agglutinant (like Turkish), isolant (like Chinese). All the Indo-European languages are losing the flexive character. The Romance languages , except Romanian, are today only semiflexive; English is the least flexive of all the Indo-European languages. However all the Indo-European languages in the past were flexive, so, all of them had (and have) phenomena like "metaphony".
    2)All the Indo-European languages have a so called "Compact Indo-European Dictionary": i.e., all the I.E. languages have some Indo-European roots that exist in all the I.E. languages.
    Compare Lat. <rex>, Celtic <rix>, Sanskrit <raja> (king); Latin <cor>, A.Greek <kčr>, Celtic <cride>, protogermanic <hairto>, etc. Compare the names of relatives, like father/pater/patčr/pita/fadhir, etc.
    3)The system of pronouns: compare Lat. <ego>, A. Greek <egň>, protonord. <ek>, Lat. <tu>, A.Greek <sy>, protonord. <thou>, etc.
    4)The numerical system.

    5)The Indo-European verb expresses: time, mode, aspect, person, passive/active/mediopassive voice, number. Mediopassive voice is estinguished in almost all the modern languages, substituted by pheriphrastic constructions/reflexive pronouns.

    6)All the Indo-European languages have verbs constructed by apophony (often called <strong verbs> or <irregular verbs>).

    7)The IndoEuropean nouns express : gender, number, case (modern languages may have lost one of more of these cathegories, for ex. English).

    8)Suffixes to create the comparative grades -er/ior and -st/ss: compare Lat. <pulchrior>, English <stronger>, etc.

    9)the Indo-European adjective agree with the noun.

    10)Some Indo-European verbs don't posses a tematic root. For exemple the verb <to be> is a mixed verb in all the Indo-European languages (it means that to decline this verb these languages use more roots, like *-ES, *-BHU and *-WES.

    COMPARE:

    Latin

    EGO SUM
    TU ES
    IS EST
    NOS SUMUS
    VOS ESTIS
    II SUNT

    Old Norse

    EK EM
    THU ERT
    HANN ER
    VER ERUM
    THER ERUDH
    THEIR ERU

    Ancient Greek

    EGO' EIMI
    SY EI
    AUTON ESTIN
    EMEIS ESMEN
    YMEIS ESTE
    AUTOI EISIN

    Hope to have been useful

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    Thank you Vampire of Venice.

    I think that flexive and agglutinating are not mutually exclusive. It is possible for a flexive language to lose its flexiveness (as you said English) and become agglutinating. It is possible for a prefix to become a suffix and a suffix to become a prefix.

    For example the comparative suffix "-ior" (melior), "-er" (bigger) could have become a prefix in Mongolian. In Mongolian the corresponding comparative particle is the prefix "ilu", which means "more". "Ilu tom" (bigger) could originally have been tomilu, tomiul or tomiur.

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    I actually have NO doubt in the ultimate relatedness of the languages. Nostratic and Greenberg's 'Eurasian' have long intrigued me. I am just sceptical of the survival of such a full array of parallels after so long a time, in the tens of millennia.
    They intrigue me too and I support their work, but sometimes they focus too much on macro, I mean M-A-C-R-O comparison that they lose the details. So for example the Nostraticists will say that Proto-Nostratic "sna" means nose, but there's no way I can find a relation of "sna" to Mongolian. It looks like they gave primacy to PIE in their comparisons and just lumped together "nasal" and "sniff".

    3)The system of pronouns: compare Lat. <ego>, A. Greek <egň>, protonord. <ek>, Lat. <tu>, A.Greek <sy>, protonord. <thou>, etc.

    5)The Indo-European verb expresses: time, mode, aspect, person, passive/active/mediopassive voice, number. Mediopassive voice is estinguished in almost all the modern languages, substituted by pheriphrastic constructions/reflexive pronouns.

    6)All the Indo-European languages have verbs constructed by apophony (often called <strong verbs> or <irregular verbs>).

    7)The IndoEuropean nouns express : gender, number, case (modern languages may have lost one of more of these cathegories, for ex. English).

    8)Suffixes to create the comparative grades -er/ior and -st/ss: compare Lat. <pulchrior>, English <stronger>, etc.

    9)the Indo-European adjective agree with the noun.

    10)Some Indo-European verbs don't posses a tematic root. For exemple the verb <to be> is a mixed verb in all the Indo-European languages (it means that to decline this verb these languages use more roots, like *-ES, *-BHU and *-WES.
    Mongolian shares all these features. The only thing is Mongolian has come to serve the same functions by using agglutination (using suffixes more). Mongol suffix and prefix particles are very similar to PIE suffix and prefix particles in both their sound and meaning.
    All the Indo-European languages have a so called "Compact Indo-European Dictionary": i.e., all the I.E. languages have some Indo-European roots that exist in all the I.E. languages.
    Compare Lat. <rex>, Celtic <rix>, Sanskrit <raja> (king); Latin <cor>, A.Greek <kčr>, Celtic <cride>, protogermanic <hairto>, etc. Compare the names of relatives, like father/pater/patčr/pita/fadhir, etc.

    4)The numerical system.
    It is the apparent diffences in vocabulary that make people doubt. Differences in vocabulary may be due solely to distance in time and space. I think the truth is that some western comparative linguists have a very poor understanding of Mongolian, only a dictionary understanding, that is why their comparisons can never be deep enough.

    Me being a Mongol I could come up with much more insightful comparisons.

    For example, you have Latin cor (heart) and caritas (love). These could be cognate with Mongolian "khair" (love). Where else does Khair come from but the heart? "Phter" (father) could be cognate with Mongolian "avdar" (meaning chest, can be pronounced aphtar). Avdar refers to the big chest housing all the precious articles in the yurt. In Mongol tradition the father occupies the most prominent position at the northern side of the yurt facing the door to the south, like a king. The chest also occupies the most unique and prominent place in the yurt, because it houses the most precious belongings, even the representations of the gods. So it is not irrational to suppose an association of the Chest to the Father. Especially if the father had died it is only logical that his spirit was believed to reside with the other "father-gods" in the Avdar. Eventually "phter" stuck with "Avdar" while the father came to be called "Av", "Ata" and "Etseg".

    The human chest is called Chej in Mongolian (note the similar sound of "chest" and "chej"). "Father's chest" is the name given to a big truck as well. There is an association between the chest in the yurt, the physical human chest and the Father figure. Like the Father's physical chest, the chest or Avdar in the yurt houses the spirit or spirits. The Father's physical chest is the symbol of the wellbeing of the family, while the Father's Avdar in the yurt is also the symbol of the wellbeing of the family. So we can all see the connection.
    Last edited by demiirel; 01-22-2011 at 04:33 AM.

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    So for example the Nostraticists will say that Proto-Nostratic "sna" means nose, but there's no way I can find a relation of "sna" to Mongolian. It looks like they gave primacy to PIE in their comparisons and just lumped together "nasal" and "sniff".
    Actually when I think about it, there could be a connection. Mongolian "nus" (snot) could well be connected to "nose".

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    Quote Originally Posted by demiirel View Post
    Thank you Vampire of Venice.

    I think that flexive and agglutinating are not mutually exclusive. It is possible for a flexive language to lose its flexiveness (as you said English) and become agglutinating. It is possible for a prefix to become a suffix and a suffix to become a prefix.

    For example the comparative suffix "-ior" (melior), "-er" (bigger) could have become a prefix in Mongolian. In Mongolian the corresponding comparative particle is the prefix "ilu", which means "more". "Ilu tom" (bigger) could originally have been tomilu, tomiul or tomiur.
    Yes it can happen that a prefix can become a suffix (very rare anyway). But you are ignoring an important fact: that two languages that are not related genealogically can acquire common traits by contact. For exemple, Italian is not a Germanic language, but it acquired germanic suffixes during the Germanic Invasions. Neverthless Italians doesn't descend from a germanic language. A lunguistic family indicates the most distant relation between languages, it means that if two languages don't belong to the same linguistic family they are not related: it is the case of Mongolian and every indo-European language.

    Mongolian can have acquired some indo-european traits by a contact with Indo-European speaking peoples living in Asia or in areas close to them, like Tocarian-speaking peoples, attested until 1000 d.C. in XinJiang (Northern-East China).

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    I make you some exemples of Indo-European roots and words:

    IE catvari: latin quattuor
    IE das'a: Latin deci, Greek deca, English ten
    IE kendram: English centre, German Zentrum, Latin centrum, Swedish Karna
    IE mayaa: Latin mea, German meine
    IE na: Latin no, German nein, Russian [B]niet[B]
    IE priit: Latin praeferire, Lithuanian pritati
    IE sharkara: English sugar, Italian zucchero, German Zucker, Latvian cukur
    IE abai: German beide, Latin ambus, O.Greek amphěSanskrit Ubhau
    IE akshy: Latin oculis, German Augen, O. Prussian aksi

    Etc.ect.

    Most European words are related to each others. These are just random exemples. I avoited to repeat exemples of using neolatin words (I wrote only the Latin mother-word).

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    I've studied Romance languages a lot, so when I studied German and Russian (I never learnt it well when I was young) I was amazed by how individual words looked so different from Romance. So I'm thinking, the distance between German and Italian is the same as the distance between PIE and its sister Very-Proto-Mongolian (around the early Neolithic). Wherever the Urheimat was PIE and Very-Proto-Mongolian must have been relatively close to each other, something like 2000 km apart. If Indo-Uralic is established as a valid family, which I think it will in at least two more generations, then it will be much more easier to accept Mongolian into the family, since Mongolian has staggering similarities to Uralic.

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    Quote Originally Posted by demiirel View Post
    One similarity may be the personal pronoun verb conjugation system.

    As an example, let us see how the Mongolian verb “barakh” (to finish), which is written in old Mongolian writing “baraqu” (root “bara-”), conjugates when combined with personal pronouns in the present tense, like it is normally done in Buryat Mongolian. By the way, I am looking at basic structures. I am aware that Mongolian was more complex in the past with gender differentiation in conjugation et cetera. But I think that can be ignored for the purposes of my analysis and comparison here.

    Ancient Mongolian “baraqu” – to finish
    First person singular: baram (i am finishing)
    Second person singular: barasi (you are finishing)
    Third person singular: barat (he is finishing)
    First person plural: baramus (we are finishing)
    Second person plural: barata (you, sir, are finishing/you guys are finishing)
    Third person plural: barad (they are finishing)

    Proto-Indo-European “ber” – to carry
    First person singular: Berom
    Second person singular: Beresi
    Third person singular: Bereti
    First person plural: Beromos
    Second person plural: Berete
    Third person plural: Berond

    It is amazing how the Proto-Indo-European conjugation is closest in a way to Latin. If you analyze the Mongolian, it is clear that personal pronouns have been added as a suffix to the verb root, although in a shortened form. The “pronoun-suffixes” are (in full elaborated form) “mi, si, ter, mus (short form of manus, meaning “we”, it is preserved in Manchu “mus”), ta, ted” respectively. This system is still present in many Mongolian languages today, like Buryat and Moghol. In Buryat, the equivalents would be “baranam, baranash, barana, baranamdi, baranat, baranad”, which are very similar despite trifling divergences. This system is no longer used in Khalkha Mongolian, because the verb system is more simplified in Khalkha Mongolian. One thing to note would be the first person plural "baranamdi" in Buryat, here the pronoun-suffix is "bid", another form of "we", which is simply the plural of "bi" (me), also written "biz" in Turkish. In this case the shortened form of "bid" is "-mdi", which might also be written "-miz" based on the obviously identical Turkish pronoun. This might in turn easily be read as "-mus" which brings us full circle back to the "baramus" (we are finishing) of the original example mentioned above. The reason for this similarity is that the root of "-mus" and "-mdi" is the same, namely "mi/bi" meaning "me", which when converted into the plural "we" becomes "manus/mus" and "bid/mid/biz/miz" respectively.

    Another similarity would be the interrogative pronouns. For example, in Hindi, “kahan” means “where” and “kitan” means “how many”. In Spanish “quien” means “who”. In Mongolian, “kahan” means “where”, “keden” means “how many” and “ken” means “who”.

    In some ways I think Mongolian is like an Indo-European language spoken in reverse. In Mongolian the suffix “-d” is similar to the Indo-European particle “to”, it shows destination, but the only difference is that in the case of Mongolian the partice comes AFTER the word, which is the reverse of Indo-European. Also, the Mongolian suffix “-aas” (written -acha) is similar to the Indo-European particles “aus” (German), “hacha” (Persian) and “-sa” (Hindi), it means that something is coming out of something. Again, in Mongolian the particle comes AFTER the word, although in the exceptional case of Hindi, "-sa" is a suffix.

    So for example, while a Mongolian says “kahanaas iresi?” (from where are you coming?), an Indo-European might say something like “kahansa beresi?” (from where are you carrying ‘that thing’?) In this case the Indo-European example is closest to Hindi, which unlike other Indo-European languages uses many suffixes, like Mongolian.

    I don’t know about other so-called Altaic languages like Japanese, but Mongolian seems a bit similar to Indo-European.

    The problem with some of the internet material on this subject is that it is too general and too obscure.

    For example:

    www.kortlandt.nl/publications/art216e.pdf

    It would be better if they also showed some examples, using specific languages. And they shouldn't always compare "Proto-Altaic" with Proto-Indo-European. "Proto-Altaic" is still very vague. Using specific languages like Mongolian is better in my opinion. So what I'm writing here is not based on what Frederik Kortlandt or some other linguist wrote, because I simply don't understand what they're writing. How am I supposed to understand a statement like this: "Proto-Altaic *sV 'this' may be similar to Indo-European *so"? There is no *sV in Mongolian. So I'm using my own common sense instead.

    For example, I think: In Mongolian "alt" means "gold", "altan" means "golden". "Torgo" means "silk", "torgon" means "silken". So I think, maybe there's a connection there, with the "-en" business, because there is a similarity in meaning.

    I'm careful about "false cognates", words that sound similar but have no genetic connection. I don't know if Mongolian "humun" is cognate with English "human". Or if Mongolian "er" (man) is cognate with English "were" (as in werewolf) or Latin "vir" (meaning man). A list of similar words is not that helpful. But it should not be totally ignored. It should be kept in the background, as something of secondary, but still usable, importance.

    What's more important is basic structures and "morphological" similarities.

    One "morphological" similarity, as I understand it, could be "verb prefixes". Verb prefixes seem like a very distinct feature of Indo-European languages.

    This is what I got from a website about Sanskrit verbs:

    When a verb uses a prefix, one of three things happens:

    * The verb's meaning is changed slightly.
    * The verb's meaning is changed significantly.
    * The verb's meaning is emphasized

    Then I look at a website about Latin verb prefixes. I know that Persian also uses verb prefixes, like "Ahuramazda khshacham manaa fra-bara". In German, ver-sprecht. In English, pro-claim ("forward-clamor"). Etc. One thing I notice is that the main function of verb prefixes is to show an EMPHASIS, or DIRECTION, POSITION, SEQUENCE and RELATION between two entities. Undergo, overthrow, interfere, preview etc. Could Mongolian have the same kind of verb prefixes? Or something left over from the past which resembles them?

    Then I think about Mongolian. OK, so Mongolian is an "agglutinative" language, with particles added after the verbal root. Having verbal prefixes seems unlikely. But then, do prefixes have to be glued to the verb? Why can't they just precede the verb as well? In that case, we have many such verbal prefixes in Mongolian, serving the same function of showing DIRECTION, POSITION, SEQUENCE and RELATION. Many of them serve as "emphasizers" or intensifiers, just like the prefixes in Sanskrit (look above).

    So what examples can I give of these "Mongolian quasi-Indo-European verb prefixes"? All the verb prefixes below are used exclusively with verbs.

    1. "Nam" (idea of lowness). Example, "Nam darakh" ("low-to press"), meaning to crush utterly, to knock out. "Nam untakh" (low-to sleep) meaning to sleep very deeply, sleep like a log. Equivalents could be "sub-press", "sub-sleep" or "infra-sleep".

    2. "Tsug" and "Kham" (both implying togetherness). Note the similarity of "Kham" with the Latin prefix "com-" and the Persian prefix "ham-", which both imply togetherness. Examples, "Tsug yavakh" (together-to go) meaning to go together and "Kham duulakh" (together-to sing) meaning to sing together. Equivalent: "com-sing", welcome to our annual comsinging event.

    3. "Nevt" (idea of going through). Example, "nevt kharvakh" (through-to shoot), meaning to shoot with an arrow in such a way that the arrow goes straight through. An equivalent could be "trans-shoot", I don't know.

    4. "Khoish" (idea of putting away to the back or frontward to the distance). Example, "khoish tavikh" ('frontward to the distance'-to put) meaning to postpone, leave for later. In fact, "post" is equal to "khoish" and "pone" is equal to "tavi-".

    5. "Tas" (idea of separation). Example "tas tsavchikh" (TAS-to cut), to cut utterly, violently into two pieces. Equivalent could be "ab-sect", don't anger him he might absect you.

    And so on and so forth. There are many more similar prefixes. Maybe we can discover that this system is very similar to Indo-European.

    One might object that these are not true verbal prefixes, but that I've chosen random words and placed them in front of the verbs. I would reply that this is not case, instead these prefixes only make sense when they are in front of verbs, they are never used anywhere else and for any other purpose in a sentence, except "nam" which can be used as an adjective "nam gazar" (low-lying land) and "khoish" which can be used as an adverb "Chingisees khoish" (Chingis-from ''frontward to the distance") meaning 'after/since the time of Genghis Khan.' One might object that use of "nam" as an adjective and "khoish" as an adverb disproves their status as "solely-verb-associated" prefixes. I would reply that even in Indo-European there are verbal prefixes that can be used for other purposes, like "counter-" which can be used as the verb "to counter", "extra-" which can be used as the adjective or noun "extra", "super-" which can be used as the adjective "super" or even as an adverb when you say "the way he did it was super".

    As far as numbers are concerned, I'm going to say that more research is necessary.

    Mongolian "Neg" (One) sounds similar to Hindi "Ek" (One).

    Mongolian "Davt" (Repeat) sounds similar to Russian "Dva" (Two).

    Mongolian "Zond/Zondoo" (Numerous,Countless) sounds similar to Latin-derived "cent/ciento" (Hundred). Lehmann believes that the Indo-European numbers greater than ten were constructed separately in the dialect groups and that "kmtom" originally meant "a large number" rather than specifically "one hundred" (Wikipedia - Proto-Indo-European language).

    Apart from these, I can't find much "potential distant cognates" yet. Who knows if more are found?

    Maybe Mongolian "Dor-" (four) was originally spoken "heDWOR", making it a cognate of Indo-European "ketwor" (four). Or maybe there was a time when it was pronounced "Chor", making it a cognate of Hindi "char" (four).

    Maybe Mongolian "Guraw" (three) was originally pronounced something like "Hri", making it a cognate of "tri" (three). "Guraw" does sound like "Hrw" or "Hri" when spoken fast. So maybe the original was Hri, which became Tri for Indo-European and Hrw for "Very-Proto-Mongolian". Eventually Hrw became Huraw and finally the Ghuraw/Qurban of today.

    Or what if Mongolian numbers originate from the plans of someone to hide the number of his troops or sheep or horses by using secret code numbers, which differed from his original language?

    Numbers are not as fixed as people think. It is well known that the Manchu language borrowed all its numbers from 11 to 20 from Mongolian, replacing its own ones. Japanese and Korean use Chinese numbers. So I don't think difference in numbers should prevent further discussion looking at deeper similarities.
    As much as linguistics interests me, this was tl;dr

    Can you please use an abstract of any articles in future and then post a link?

    Thank

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    Quote Originally Posted by Demiirel
    One might object that the R in dewer is not found in PIE. I reply, dewer can also be read as dewes. Why? Because of the ox connection. In English and Tocharian the word "ox" means ox. In Turkish the word "okuz" means ox. In Mongolian the word "ukur" is accepted as a cognate of Turkish "okuz". The ubiquitous Z-R pattern in Turkish and Mongolian is well known. So another way to say "dewer" is obviously "dewez" or "dewes". But we'll stick with the root "dew-" (lofty, above, divine) for convenience.
    The z ~ r variation is inner-Turkic: it is *z in Common Turkic but *r in Bolgharic branch (today only Chuvash). Mongolic has borrowed the word from Bolghar Turkic, so Mongolic -er does not correspond to IE -es.

    Quote Originally Posted by Demiirel
    For example, you have Latin cor (heart) and caritas (love). These could be cognate with Mongolian "khair" (love). Where else does Khair come from but the heart? "Phter" (father) could be cognate with Mongolian "avdar" (meaning chest, can be pronounced aphtar). Avdar refers to the big chest housing all the precious articles in the yurt.
    Such connections are way too arbitrary. You can always find some semantically fitting word using such “logic”. (Take ‘under’ for example: you can connect almost everything to it, as ‘mouse’, ‘grass’, ‘earth’, ‘knee’, ‘foot’ etc. are all ‘under’ us.) Such a method is not scientific, because you can “prove” any two languages relatives by that method. You must start with exact semantic parallels: ‘heart’ ~ ‘heart’, ‘father’ ~ ‘father’ or 'chest' ~ 'chest, box' and 'migrate' ~ 'walk, go'.

    Quote Originally Posted by Demiirel
    If Indo-Uralic is established as a valid family, which I think it will in at least two more generations, then it will be much more easier to accept Mongolian into the family, since Mongolian has staggering similarities to Uralic.
    They tried it but there is not enough common between Indo-European and Uralic. And even if there were, you should get the same reconstructional level by comparing Uralic and IE than comparing Mongolic and IE – otherwise they are contradicting and just prove that the method is too uncritical, as you can “prove” anything by it.

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