View Poll Results: IF "Central" America was settled by Anglo-Saxons, Central America wouldn't exist

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Thread: IF "Central" America was settled by AngloSaxons, "Central America" term wouldn't exist?

  1. #1
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    Default IF "Central" America was settled by AngloSaxons, "Central America" term wouldn't exist?

    I am sure of this 100%, 200%.

    If area of so called "Central" America was settled by AngloSaxons (speaking english today like USA) this term "Central" America wouldn't even exist.

    1st.
    There is no such thing as "Central America" considering Geography, there is only NORTH AND SOUTH AMERICA.

    2nd. This is without any doubt just one out of many examples how GeoPolitics is ran in various parts of world.

    3rd. People accept this terms like blind, like they're complete idiots (even many of them aren't), they just accept it, they use it, without any questions asked.

    4th. THE FACT is that "central" America is IN FACT a North America, yep, NORTH AMERICA, so why use this term? Because they speak spanish and because they are of half whites and half native indians?



    "Clap clap clap clap clap", we just have found A LEGAL racism presented in every school book, in everyday life... and everyone is just oblivious of it...

    My DIRECT question to you all here, and please, answer me with yes or no without much philosophy, IF "CENTRAL" America area was settled by AngloSaxons and if they would speak English today, would that term CENTRAL AMERICA even exist?

    I'm saying with 200% assurance; NO it would not.
    Last edited by Robocop; 02-03-2018 at 02:32 PM.

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    I disagree.

    Central America is the same as Mesoamerica, and this area was very distinct already before Columbus. So the existence of this term has nothing to do with post-1492 history. At least not in Poland (we always talk about Pre-Columbian Central America and it includes Mexico).

    Meso means Middle, Intermediate, or Central: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mesoamerica

    Also, even if Central America was settled by Anglo-Saxons, it would still be populated by Mestizos today.

    But these Mestizos would be 50% Amerindian + 50% North European (instead of 50% South European).

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    Quote Originally Posted by Peterski View Post
    I disagree.

    Central America is the same as Mesoamerica, and this area was very distinct already before Columbus. So the existence of this term has nothing to do with post-1492 history. At least not in Poland (we always talk about Pre-Columbian Central America and it includes Mexico).

    Meso means Middle, Intermediate, or Central: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mesoamerica

    Also, even if Central America was settled by Anglo-Saxons, it would still be populated by Mestizos today.

    But these Mestizos would be 50% Amerindian + 50% North European (instead of 50% South European).
    Simple fact for you: there is ONLY North American continent and South American continent, there IS NO "Central" American continent.

    But it is thought in everyday life there is such thing, and you cannot deny it, it is GeoPolitical input which insults intelligence and Geography itself.

    This term CENTRAL AMERICA is used today to such degree that EVERYONE FORGETS that Mexico and rest of the "central" american country ARE ON NORTH AMERICAN CONTINENT, and you cannot deny this.

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    North America (to the north of Rio Grande) had no more than 3.5 million inhabitants at the time of Columbus:

    http://proceedings.caaconference.org...w_CAA_2000.pdf

    On the contrary, Central America and South America were inhabited by at least few tens of millions of people.

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    Since when is Mexico considered central american ?
    I learned in school geography class that central america starts south from Mexico.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Robocop View Post
    Simple fact for you: there is ONLY North American continent and South American continent, there IS NO "Central" American continent.
    Just like there is ONLY Eurasian continent - there is no European continent. Asia and Europe together are one landmass, one continent.

    In Polish sciences & historiography, Central America has always been counted separately (even in books from the 1800s & early 1900s).

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    Quote Originally Posted by Stearsolina View Post
    Since when is Mexico considered central american ?
    I learned in school geography class that central america starts south from Mexico.
    In Poland we count Mexico as Central American or Mesoamerican (which is the same thing).

    I checked Polish Statistical Yearbooks from 1938 and 1939, and Mexico was already counted as part of Central America back then.

    This data is from those yearbooks: https://www.theapricity.com/forum/sh...ericas-in-1936

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    In Croatian books Mexico is part of northern America

    Central America: Guatemala, Belize, Honduras, Nicaragua, El Salvador, Costa Rica and Panama. Plus the Carribean...

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    Quote Originally Posted by Peterski View Post
    In Poland we count Mexico as Central American or Mesoamerican (which is the same thing).

    I checked Polish Statistical Yearbooks from 1938 and 1939, and Mexico was already counted as part of Central America back then.

    This data is from those yearbooks: https://www.theapricity.com/forum/sh...ericas-in-1936
    Very interestimg, thanks for posting so there is no consensus in European geography it seems ?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Peterski View Post
    Just like there is ONLY Eurasian continent - there is no European continent. Asia and Europe together are one landmass, one continent.

    In Polish sciences & historiography, Central America has always been counted separately (even in books from the 1800s & early 1900s).
    You know very well that most of normal world knows for this continents; Seven continents;



    Central American continent does not exist and it wouldn't even be mentioned if it was settled by AngloSaxons.

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