View Poll Results: Who do you consider a "Celtic" nation in 2018?

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18. You may not vote on this poll
  • Wales

    11 61.11%
  • Brittany

    8 44.44%
  • Cornwall

    7 38.89%
  • Scotland

    8 44.44%
  • Galicia

    2 11.11%
  • Asturias

    2 11.11%
  • Ireland

    13 72.22%
  • Isle of Man

    8 44.44%
  • All of these are "Celtic."

    3 16.67%
  • None of these are "Celtic" anymore.

    1 5.56%
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Thread: Agree or disagree: the concept of "Celtic nations" in the modern era should be questioned.

  1. #21
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    Quote Originally Posted by Tooting Carmen View Post
    Well as we've discussed before, Britain mostly has a West-East cline rather than a South-North one - I don't find people in Bristol, Exeter, Gloucester or Swindon to look much if at all different to people here, and even Birmingham has quite a few darkish Celtic types. It is only when you go further east that you start to notice a difference.
    Regarding "Celtic looks" or genetics then that is going to be very controversial because the South east English might have had more Continental Celtic input. A recent genetic study thinks this is the case with Wales getting some of this migration also. In the end language is going to have to be the criterion used.

    https://www.dailymail.co.uk/sciencet...years-ago.html

    Present-day people from England and Wales have more ancestry derived from early European farmers (EEF) than did people of the Early Bronze Age1. To understand this, here we generated genome-wide data from 793 individuals, increasing data from the Middle to the Late Bronze Age and Iron Age in Britain by 12-fold, and western and central Europe by 3.5-fold. Between 1000 and 875 BC, EEF ancestry increased in southern Britain (England and Wales) but not northern Britain (Scotland) due to incorporation of migrants who arrived at this time and over previous centuries, and who were genetically most similar to ancient individuals from France. These migrants contributed about half the ancestry of people of England and Wales from the Iron Age, thereby creating a plausible vector for the spread of early Celtic languages into Britain. These patterns are part of a broader trend of EEF ancestry becoming more similar across central and western Europe in the Middle to the Late Bronze Age, coincident with archaeological evidence of intensified cultural exchange2,3,4,5,6. There was comparatively less gene flow from continental Europe during the Iron Age, and the independent genetic trajectory in Britain is also reflected in the rise of the allele conferring lactase persistence to approximately 50% by this time compared to approximately 7% in central Europe where it rose rapidly in frequency only a millennium later. This suggests that dairy products were used in qualitatively different ways in Britain and in central Europe over this period.
    https://www.nature.com/articles/s41586-021-04287-4

  2. #22
    Veteran Member Septentrion's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Sikeliot View Post
    This is my argument: I am absolutely not saying that modern day people with a Celtic history and heritage should not be able to claim it. People should be able to claim their roots or any part of their history. I am also not saying that people should not be able to identify with Celtic heritage. They absolutely can.

    But I do challenge the notion of "Celtic nations" in an era where apart from Wales, no nation is majority Celtic-speaking nor distinct enough from the non-Celtic parts of their nations to justify such a distinction to be made. To me, if we include some of these places, then we must also include England and France as a whole.

    The only regions that by my standards qualify as "Celtic nations" in the modern era are Brittany, due to its linguistic difference from the rest of France and the proven origin of the Bretons as being migrants from Britain, and Wales, because the Welsh language is widely spoken by the Welsh population.

    However, I would argue that in 2018, the idea that there is any "Celtic" nation is pretty much defunct, a huge reach, and based on nothing more than wanting to distance themselves from the English and French. I also dispute the actual basis on which specific "Celtic" nations are defined as such. Let me explain.

    Galicia: A Celtic language has not been spoken in Galicia since at least the 6th century, if not earlier. Galicians might use the bagpipe (an instrument which, mind you, is used everywhere from southern Italy to Ireland to Turkey and even parts of West Asia and has no distinct Celtic origin), and have a distinct regional culture in Spain, but "Celtic" in 2018 when they speak a language similar to/dialect of Portuguese and are scarcely culturally distinct from their neighboring regions in Spain? To me, this is just a "special snowflake" mentality of wanting to be different from the rest of Spain on the basis of being "Celtic." All Iberians have some Celtic ancestry and should be able to claim it but there is no basis for calling Galicia, a Romance-speaking region, a Celtic nation.

    Asturias: sometimes included as the eighth "Celtic nation," I would make the same argument as I would make for Galicia.

    Cornwall: The Cornish language has not been spoken for several hundred years, and arguing that the Cornish are descended from the Britons rather than the Anglo-Saxons and thus "Celtic" is based on an inaccurate, and archaic, view that the English are primarily Anglo-Saxon and that their ancestors pushed the Britons out of what is now England and toward the western extremities of the country. Cornish people are genetically closer to other English people, just they have less Anglo-Saxon input, but ALL English people have some Britannic ("Celtic") ancestry. Singling out the Cornish as being "Celtic" does not make sense to me, and it seems like Cornish identity can be rightfully asserted to being a distinct regional identity without claiming it is due to Celtic-ness. Cornish is a dead language, so as far as I am concerned, Cornwall in 2018 is no more Celtic than is East Anglia.

    Scotland: Large parts of Scotland have not been Celtic-speaking any more recently than has most of England, and very few people speak Scottish Gaelic today. The Scottish Gaelic language came from Ireland, and was restricted mostly to the southwest of Scotland. Scotland also spoke Scots (a Germanic language resulting from the Anglo-Saxon conquest and influence from England). It seems strange to me for Scotland to be portrayed exclusively as a "Celtic" nation and never as a "Germanic" one when one could easily argue that much of Scotland is no more 'Celtic' than England is, and England is never as a whole portrayed as Celtic. To me, the only reason to portray Scotland as Celtic is to assert difference to England, but this can easily be done without trying to apply an identity that is only relevant to one part of Scotland to the entire country. There are also places in Scotland where Scandinavian influence is strongly present (Orkney, Shetland, northeast Scotland) but I do not see people claiming Scotland is part of Scandinavia. If we claim Scotland as Celtic because a small part of Scotland was Celtic speaking in recent times, then the presence of Cornwall and Cumbria in England should mean England is as a whole classified as Celtic, or the presence of Brittany should mean all of France is classified as Celtic. But we don't do this, so why with Scotland?

    Isle of Man: Manx Gaelic has died out, so I would make the same argument here as I would for Cornwall.

    Ireland: I would argue Ireland has a stronger case than Scotland, Cornwall, or Galicia, but defining the Irish as STRICTLY Celtic is highly inaccurate. The Irish are far from strictly 'Gaelic' in their ancestry, having significant Viking (RE: Germanic) input as high as 20% in nearly all parts of the island, as well as ancestry from nearly all parts of Britain scattered around the island. Additionally, the Gaelic language has died out in most of Ireland. I could see the Gaeltacht defined as "Celtic" because they have managed to retain use of Gaelic, but parts of Ireland are full of Norman surnames, have been speaking English for hundreds of years, and are culturally similar to non-"Celtic" parts of the UK.
    Galicia and Asturias are part of the Romance world. The Celtic Fringe and Bretagne (France) is the true Celtic world today. Their descendants elsewhere around the world represent the Celtic lineage.

  3. #23
    Veteran Member aherne's Avatar
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    Where is France? This is ridiculous...

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    Quote Originally Posted by aherne View Post
    Where is France? This is ridiculous...
    Brittany genius. France is Latin+Celtic w/ Germanic and Slavic minorities. To put France there would be as insane as putting England there .

  5. #25
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    How many of these Celts can speak Celtic. Or is it all lost?

  6. #26
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    Quote Originally Posted by Dragoon View Post
    How many of these Celts can speak Celtic. Or is it all lost?
    Not sure maybe just Wales and Brittany ? Scotland does not really count since there are more sheep than people in the Highlands. I do not feel particularly Celtic despite having a hiberno-norman name and being R1b-z253-- I do not speak Celtic and my Germanic autosomal DNA would make me more English or at least Scottish.

  7. #27
    Veteran Member Septentrion's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Grace O'Malley View Post
    Regarding "Celtic looks" or genetics then that is going to be very controversial because the South east English might have had more Continental Celtic input. A recent genetic study thinks this is the case with Wales getting some of this migration also. In the end language is going to have to be the criterion used.

    https://www.dailymail.co.uk/sciencet...years-ago.html



    https://www.nature.com/articles/s41586-021-04287-4
    South - East England is not more Celtic, lady. There is just a higher Neolithic input in comparison to northern Britain and Ireland due to a migration which happened way before the Angles, Saxons, Jutes set their Germanic feet on Brythonic soil. I guess in Wales, Neolithic genes are in a higher ratio. Celts were not a homogeneous people, they had a variation. Both South East England and even Wales have received more Anglo-Saxon input than Ireland,

  8. #28
    Veteran Member Septentrion's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Crn Volk View Post
    Do the Celtic nations feel an affinity amongst each other? Eg., is there some kind of Pan-Celticism or Celtic nation co-operation?
    Of course, they do. The same way, Germanic people do.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Septentrion View Post
    Of course, they do. The same way, Germanic people do.
    Germanic people don't have this affinity for some greater Germanic brotherhood.
    Last edited by Africanwidow; 08-12-2022 at 03:02 AM.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Septentrion View Post
    South - East England is not more Celtic, lady. There is just a higher Neolithic input in comparison to northern Britain and Ireland due to a migration which happened way before the Angles, Saxons, Jutes set their Germanic feet on Brythonic soil. I guess in Wales, Neolithic genes are in a higher ratio. Celts were not a homogeneous people, they had a variation. Both South East England and even Wales have received more Anglo-Saxon input than Ireland,
    Again, you don't know what you are talking about. The genetic data proves East England is more Celtic than the rest of the Isles. The higher Neolithic input comes from a French IA source aka Gauls/Continental Celts. The exact same migration you are talking about. Wales doesn't have the same degree of French IA/EEF drifted input. Their Neolithic input is distinct compared to the English.

    I'll post the chart for you again.

    Last edited by Africanwidow; 08-12-2022 at 02:57 AM.

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