View Poll Results: Which haplogroup is more Germanic?

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  • I1

    13 44.83%
  • R1a

    3 10.34%
  • R1b

    13 44.83%
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Thread: Which is the more Germanic haplogroup - I1, R1a, or R1b?

  1. #11
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    Quote Originally Posted by Leto View Post
    Mexicans are actually spreading Spanish and Jewish Y-DNA by mixing with American women, lol. Anyway, many half Mexicans look white.
    Mexicans haplos are not really compatible with Anglo-Americans, we don't really have a lot of R1b. Anglo-Americans are mostly I1, with a little R1b.

  2. #12
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    Obviously the answer is I1.
    Can't be. Germanics are Indo-Europeans. I-people are not Indo-Europeans = I-people are no Germanics. Much more are not more germanic than two other groups mentioned by you.

  3. #13
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    Quote Originally Posted by Ayman Vasconic View Post
    Can't be.
    Germanics are Indo-Europeans.
    I-people are not Indo-Europeans.
    = I-people are no Germanics. Much
    more are not more germanic than two
    other groups mentioned by you.
    Rethel?

  4. #14
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    Obviously the answer is I1.

  5. #15
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    I1 is proto-Germanic. Also, welcome back, Rethel. What were you even banned for in the first place?

  6. #16
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    I1 is proto-Germanic.
    Nope.
    If you use word proto, then it is even
    more R1, than without this word.

    Also, welcome back, Rethel. What were you even banned for in the first place?
    Inter alia becasue of you.

  7. #17
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    Quote Originally Posted by Leto View Post
    What is the percentage of I1 among Germans and Austrians?
    16% in Germans (north has more than south)
    12% in Austrians.

    for comparison...

    34% Denmark
    12% England
    9% Poland
    9% France
    5% Russia
    2% Spain

  8. #18
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    I1 is proto-Germanic. Also, welcome back, Rethel. What were you even banned for in the first place?
    Nope. It was Indo-Europeanized by the R1 true Germanics before moving to Scandinavia and seeking refugee there, evolving from one man just 3000 years ago.. Just like J2 was Indo-Europeanized by R1.

    There, I said it.. I1 was spread by one Indo-Europeanized man 3000 years ago.

  9. #19
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    Not sure how accurate this is:

    https://www.eupedia.com/europe/europ...logroups.shtml

    They say Mesolithic Europeans

    I1 = Nordic (pre-Germanic)
    12b = pre-Celto-Germanic
    12a1 = Sardinian, Iberian
    12a2 = Dinaric, Danubian

    then...

    Bronze Age

    R1a = Baltic-Slavic, Germanic, Iranian
    R1b = Italo-Celtic, Germanic.


    So basically Germanic came with IndoEuropeans and Germanized the earlier ones? (maybe similar with Slavic coming with IndoEuropeans and Slavicizing others?)
    Not sure.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    Rethel?
    I1 was heavily Neolithic and positioned in Central Europe before getting Indo-Europeanized, nearly dying off until one man took refugee with the invading R1's in Scandinavia. Scandinavians still have Ancient Neolithic words, unknown to Indo-European.

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