View Poll Results: Which haplogroup is more Germanic?

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  • I1

    13 44.83%
  • R1a

    3 10.34%
  • R1b

    13 44.83%
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Thread: Which is the more Germanic haplogroup - I1, R1a, or R1b?

  1. #21
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    Nope.
    If you use word proto, then it is even
    more R1, than without this word.
    I1 was in Europe before R1.

    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    Inter alia becasue of you.
    I assure you, I didn't ask for you to be banned. I find you to be entertaining, and TBH the forum was kind of empty without you.

  2. #22
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    Quote Originally Posted by Wrong View Post
    Nope. It was Indo-Europeanized by the R1 true Germanics before moving to Scandinavia and seeking refugee there, evolving from one man just 3000 years ago.. Just like J2 was Indo-Europeanized by R1.

    There, I said it.. I1 was spread by one Indo-Europeanized man 3000 years ago.
    Well, R1 was mean to I1, and tried to do a genocide of us. Otherwise, we'd be 40% of Europe.

  3. #23
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    I1 was in Europe before R1.
    And this is one of the reasons, why cannot be a proto-germanic.
    It is pre-germanic, what means before germans, non germanic.

    Proto means origin, and origin of germans and protogermans
    is indoeuropean, so it cannot be oldeuropean. Proto-Germans
    lived in East Europe, before they came to Scandinavia, and at
    that time in Scandia was different folk, certainly not having
    anything to do with Germans and germanic language.

    Saying, that I-men are protogermanic it is like saying, that
    pre-columbian Indians are proto-Yankees and proto-Dixies...

    I assure you, I didn't ask for you to be banned. I find you to be entertaining, and TBH the forum was kind of empty without you.
    I know you didn;t, but you was a reason.

  4. #24
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    And this is one of the reasons, why cannot be a proto-germanic.
    It is pre-germanic, what means before germans, non germanic.

    Proto means origin, and origin of germans and protogermans
    is indoeuropean, so it cannot be oldeuropean. Proto-Germans
    lived in East Europe, before they came to Scandinavia, and at
    that time in Scandia was different folk, certainly not having
    anything to do with Germans and germanic language.

    Saying, that I-men are protogermanic it is like saying, that
    pre-columbian Indians are proto-Yankees and proto-Dixies...
    Fine, I1 is still more European than R1, though.

    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    I know you didn;t, but you was a reason.
    How come? I didn't tell you to make a thread calling me a "false Christian, a wolf in sheep's clothes"

  5. #25
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    Well, R1 was mean to I1, and tried to do a genocide of us. Otherwise, we'd be 40% of Europe.
    I1 before Indoeuropeans, was probably quite small in number, being like one of the small clades of I2.
    And it wasn't like we arrived and met you. No, we met Farmerians, who allready did colonize you, and
    you probably - at least in big part - were speaking in their language, and were even looking thike them.

  6. #26
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    Fine, I1 is still more European than R1, though.
    At that time there was no Europe, becasue europe was created by IEs,
    and R1 inhabited HALF+ of the continent. So, how I1 is more european?

    How come? I didn't tell you to make a thread calling me a "false Christian, a wolf in sheep's clothes"
    Not only becasue of it.
    And I said the truth - as long as you do not convert, but you claim to be christian,
    you are false. Being a christian means beliving, actin and saying things in certain ways.
    You do opposite, so it makes you a liar and deciver.

  7. #27
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rethel View Post
    I1 before Indoeuropeans, was probably quite small in number, being like one of the small clades of I2.
    And it wasn't like we arrived and met you. No, we met Farmerians, who allready did colonize you, and
    you probably - at least in big part - were speaking in their language, and were even looking thike them.
    What's a "Farmerian"???????

  8. #28
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    Well, R1 was mean to I1, and tried to do a genocide of us. Otherwise, we'd be 40% of Europe.
    If not R1.. Others would genocide you, you were lucky R1 were merciful to you as they are the largest by far in % of the European population pools.

  9. #29
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    Quote Originally Posted by Wrong View Post
    If not R1.. Others would genocide you, you were lucky R1 were merciful to you as they are the largest by far in % of the European population pools.
    No, if it wasn't for R1, I1 would have advanced even more quickly, and the industrial revolution would have probably happened in the 1500s.

  10. #30
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bobby Martnen View Post
    No, if it wasn't for R1, I1 would have advanced even more quickly, and the industrial revolution would have probably happened in the 1500s.
    I1 would still be in the Stone Age if not for Farmers and Indo-Europeans.


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