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Thread: Hungarians are NOT Finno-Ugrics. They just adopted a Ugric/Uralic language.

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    This picture pretty much sums it up. The Kostenki-like West Eurasian ancestry to Mal-ta comes from Ust-Ishim (in other word from haplogroups N and O). The East Asian ancestry to Mal'ta comes from R-men emigrating North from South East Asian jungles.

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    In Reichs models Mal'ta boy was 20% East Asian. It is pretty obvious the East Asian ancestry in Mal'ta comes from proto R1 men spreading from South East Asian jungles.
    According to Karafet the whole K2b clade has South East Asian origin. During mesolithic C and D haplos pushed ancestral P and all those other S and others to the islands.

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    https://www.yfull.com/tree/P/

    For the record haplogroup P is young as hell. It has TMRCA of 30k https://www.yfull.com/tree/P/ which is same with fex with haplogroup O

    So that gives you idea how closely related the P:s are. With P being this young, there is zero chance for the whole P clade being anything other than mongoloid in origin. Well if not mongoloid in the physical sense, then some sort of negrito. In any case - a genetic East Eurasian

    It's sad that the nomenclature is completely bonkers and distords the big picture. Haplogroup R and Q should both be just called P instead of being given their own letters.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Harkonnen View Post
    Archaic Indo-European was originally agglunative language.

    Uralic is basically what archaic Pre-Proto-Indo-European language was like before it mixed with Caucasus languages



    http://www.academia.edu/377087/Inter...lic_Laryngeals
    I have to come back to this issue of how languages work (or how they change). It's just so fascinating Not only can language develop from agglunative to fusional, but even from isolating to agglunative or fusional. Remember agglunative and fusional are both synthetic languages, so when isolating changes to synthetic, it's even a bigger leap of faith than from agglunative to fusional.

    Here's a little lesson to bozos, take heed kiddos!

    Historical Linguistics: Can languages cycle from inflected to isolating to agglutinative morphologies and back again?


    Answer: https://www.quora.com/Historical-Lin...and-back-again

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    Quote Originally Posted by Danielion View Post
    Yeah. I'm not being serious though, but the Yamnaya culture is associated with Proto-IE and they lived North of the Caucasus.
    Thats what I was trying to say; people make such claims but there is no academic evidence related to that, its a shame that they deceive people so easily. We northern caucasians descend from Yamnaya and Maikop cultures, then Sycthians as well and it is easily seen in our typology and culture (although today some of us have outer dark effect due to mixing with southern caucasian and even with middle-eastern to some extent) This is the reason why white people are called 'caucasian' in the western world.

    Quote Originally Posted by Harkonnen View Post
    Archaic Indo-European was originally agglunative language.

    Uralic is basically what archaic Pre-Proto-Indo-European language was like before it mixed with Caucasus languages[/url]
    A daring and weird claim, I will be reading this and comment afterwards. In the meantime you may be interested in checking out this criticism of IE language family by Angela Marcantonio:

    http://s155239215.onlinehome.us/turk...geFamilyEn.htm

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    Quote Originally Posted by Buusra View Post
    Thats what I was trying to say; people make such claims but there is no academic evidence related to that, its a shame that they deceive people so easily. We northern caucasians descend from Yamnaya and Maikop cultures, then Sycthians as well and it is easily seen in our typology and culture (although today some of us have outer dark effect due to mixing with southern caucasian and even with middle-eastern to some extent) This is the reason why white people are called 'caucasian' in the western world.



    A daring and weird claim, I will be reading this and comment afterwards. In the meantime you may be interested in checking out this criticism of IE language family by Angela Marcantonio:

    http://s155239215.onlinehome.us/turk...geFamilyEn.htm
    Women can shut up and go make sandwiches (both you and Angela)

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    Quote Originally Posted by Harkonnen View Post
    Women can shut up and go make sandwiches (both you and Angela)
    Is this the way you talk to women in Finland (lol)?

    I thought we could make comments over the academic articles in a decent way, as if that is possible in TA. Anyway no prb forget it

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    What about this:

    Feher et al. 2015, "Y‑SNP L1034: limited genetic link between Mansi and Hungarian‑speaking populations":

    https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25258186

    Some Hungarians are paternally Finno-Ugric.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Harkonnen View Post
    Haplogroup R evolved in South East Asian jungles. Haplogroup N is the first European haplogroup (Oase man)
    cope of the year

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    Quote Originally Posted by Beauvais View Post
    Basically, one question I would like to ask you all (especially Hungarians): Would you rather Hungarians speak an Indo-European language (like Slavic) or would it be more appropriate for them to continue speaking a Mongoloid / East Asian language? (would today's Hungarians actually find speaking a Mongoloid tongue degrading? Or is it actually seen as an noble celebration of an ancient heritage/tradition?)

    In the future; would it be preferable if Hungarians dropped their language and adopted a Slavic (or Indo-European) one? (Especially if they built an Empire with the Polish?)

    The Mongoloid admixture in the Hungarians was actually quite rare. (last time I checked, Mongol genetics were actually really low. Perhaps about 5% or less, in the average Hungarian population. That's approximately 1 out of 50 Hungarians that have Mongoloid ancestry. Disclaimer: But this is an apparent statistic; and only a guess.)

    Basically: Do Hungarians feel bothered by the fact that their tongue is Mongoloid (non-IE) in origin?
    It's beyond ridiculous how childish your reasoning is: just because most Modern Hungarians have similar genetic makeup to their neighbors than they should all of a sudden unlearn their language and learn Slavic (sic!) instead. Hahaha, what is even Slavic like these days, since Slavic is a language family, not an actual language? Also you have very limited knowledge about the formation of the Uralic languages. The Heimat of the Uralic languages was North-East to the Ural Mountains, literally thousands of km away from the Heimat of the Mongolic languages which was in East Asia. Please look up a map first before stating such unrealistic associations.

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