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Thread: Balto-Slavic, was it?

  1. #21
    Iskusan član Vlatko Vukovic's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Guede View Post
    Svaanik Kumar explains that I2a was closer to Sanskrit (he compares Sanskrit to South Slavic), so basically they can be called Slavic language owners, R1a were from different branch, they took influences, R1a are Slavic language users (like Celtic Irish people are Germanic English (I1) language users)

    How if I2a is not Indo-European

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    Iskusan član Vlatko Vukovic's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bosniensis View Post
    It is my opinion that Scythians have completely assimilated South-Eastern Balto-Slavic Group of peoples and created the language we call Slavic.
    That is where we have problem.

    Did they assimilated Balto-Slavic group, or just Baltic group

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    Quote Originally Posted by Guede View Post
    Svaanik Kumar explains that I2a was closer to Sanskrit (he compares Sanskrit to South Slavic), so basically they can be called Slavic language owners, R1a were from different branch, they took influences, R1a are Slavic language users (like Celtic Irish people are Germanic English (I1) language users)

    So you think Slavs originated in the Danube basin/ Vinca?. What would Marija Gimbutas say.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic View Post
    How if I2a is not Indo-European
    don't listen to R1 knight anymore

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    Quote Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic View Post
    How if I2a is not Indo-European
    I2 is Proto-Carpatian haplogroup that has been assimilated into that Indo-Iranian and Proto Slavic mix.

    We will never know, but I tend to trust OLD Greek authors cause they always spoke with confidence like "that's undisputed fact".

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    Iskusan član Vlatko Vukovic's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Guede View Post
    don't listen to R1 knight anymore
    Hahaha, so your opinion is that I2a spoke Indo-European language as well? From the beginning?

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    Samo yabhti da da

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    I think that Letto-Lithuanian Balts are swearing totally different

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    Quote Originally Posted by Vlatko Vukovic View Post
    How if I2a is not Indo-European
    Quote Originally Posted by Guede View Post
    don't listen to R1 knight anymore
    http://eujournal.org/index.php/esj/a...File/4182/4018

    THE STORY OF TWO NORTHWARD MIGRATIONS - ORIGINS OF FINNO - PERMIC AND BALTO - SLAVIC LANGUAGES IN NORTHEAST EUROPE, BASED ON HUMAN Y - CHROMOSOME HAPLOGROUPS

    Abstract
    This paper attemps to find a plausible explanation for the origins of Balto
    -
    Slavic and Finno-Permian languages in Northeast Europe by a research based on the analysis of statistical databases of human Y-chromosome haplogroups . The mainstream view that
    associates Balto-Slavic languages with haplogroup R1a and íthe Corded Ware Culture, and Finno-Permian languages with haplogroup N, fails to solve several contradictions: How
    come, that the presence of subclades of haplogroup R are as high in most Finno-Permian populations, as the presence of haplogroup N? How come, that Corded Ware culture spread
    so far north, that it covered the early-medieval range of most Finno-Permic languages? This
    paper is trying to set up a hypothesis that solves these contradictions.
    in short, they wrote:
    R1a (Z280) was Uralic/Permian, N1 Finnic
    when I2a came (probably with R1a m-458) we have those Slavic dialects

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