Origins of the House of Arpad - III. King Bela's Bones

**Proto-Shaman** · 09-12-2018, 03:16 PM

Originally Posted by İrle

You are a fucking maniac. Keep reading Osman Çataloluk.

Who is this bastard? Your foster father?

**~~İrle~~** · 09-12-2018, 03:18 PM

Originally Posted by Kipchak Håkan

Who is this bastard? Your foster father?

Be more respecful to your mentor. You share the same mental illness with him.

**Proto-Shaman** · 09-12-2018, 03:19 PM

Originally Posted by İrle

Be more respecful to your mentor. You share the same mental illness with him.

Show respect to your brain cells.

**~~Petros Houhoulis~~** · 09-13-2018, 12:52 AM

Originally Posted by Buusra

Indo-european invasion of central Asia and northern India is just a hypothesis and fictitious, nothing ever proven about it thus far. You cannot make proper science with pre-accepted fairy tales and this only lead to misguidance, this is what western science is doing in historical studies. Turkic hegamony ruled over central Asia and northern India until 800s and their heritage is still there. Even Klyosov accepts that the origin of R1a is unknown so it is assumed to be indo-european while he asserts that R1b is the haplogroup of Turkic speaking peoples

Just because some indo-iranians appeared on central Asia and northern India doesnt mean the original people there was indo-european lol. Almos, Arpad and their heir were Turkic and this is widely and academically accepted. You are always referring to non-scientific wiki and sided geneaology sites like eupedia only, I suggest you follow some latest articles and books published recently

The R1a marker is 1000% IndoEuropean, the Altaic marker is C3 from Turkey all the way to Japan, some suggest even into some North American tribes.

The dominance of the IndoEuropean languages in North India proves beyond doubt that the place was conquered by IndoEuropean invaders:

**~~Petros Houhoulis~~** · 09-13-2018, 01:33 AM

Originally Posted by Kipchak Håkan

Hello Mr. anonymous sockpuppet.

F. Altheim "Das alte Iran" writes that Iranian Avesta's most archaic texts, Gathas, are still not understood by today's linguists. 600 B.C. - R. Stiehlel writes, it is quite obvious that language of old Avesta is closely tied to ancient Altaic languages. Since newcomers to Iran joined older settled inhabitants often associated with Scythians, Türks and Finno-Ugrians, and borrowed much.

Franz Altheim and Ruth Stiehl, Geschichte Mittelasiens im Altertum (Berlin, 1970).

owned

next...

...But he didn't translate the Gathas from Altaic, did he? Even worse, the surviving Dravidian languages of India are not Altaic, though they are Agglutinative, and there is sufficient evidence proving that they were supplanted by the IndoEuropean languages all over India:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dravidian_languages

The Dravidian languages are a language family spoken mainly in southern India and parts of eastern and central India, as well as in Sri Lanka with small pockets in southwestern Pakistan, southern Afghanistan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Bhutan,^[2] and overseas in other countries such as Malaysia, Philippines, Indonesia and Singapore. The Dravidian languages with the most speakers are Telugu, Tamil, Kannada and Malayalam. There are also small groups of Dravidian-speaking scheduled tribes, who live outside Dravidian-speaking areas, such as the Kurukh in Eastern India and Gondi in Central India.^[3] The Dravidian languages are spoken by more than 215 million people in India, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.^[4]Though some scholars have argued that the Dravidian languages may have been brought to India by migrations in the fourth or third millennium BCE^[5]^[6] or even earlier,^[7]^[8] the Dravidian languages cannot easily be connected to any other language family, and they could well be indigenous to India.^[9]^[10]^[11]^{[note 1]}
Epigraphically the Dravidian languages have been attested since the 2nd century BCE as Tamil-Brahmi script on the cave walls discovered in the Madurai and Tirunelveli districts of Tamil Nadu.^[13] Only two Dravidian languages are spoken exclusively outside the post-1947 state of India: Brahui in the Balochistan region of Pakistan and Afghanistan; and Dhangar, a dialect of Kurukh, in parts of Nepal and Bhutan. Dravidian place names along the Arabian Sea coasts and Dravidian grammatical influence such as clusivity in the Indo-Aryan languages, namely Marathi, Konkani, Gujarati, Marwari, and Sindhi, suggest that Dravidian languages were once spoken more widely across the Indian subcontinent.^[14]^[15]

Furthermore there has never been a trace of Altaic languages in India EVER:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lingui...story_of_India

**Proto-Shaman** · 09-13-2018, 03:00 PM

Originally Posted by Petros Houhoulis

The R1a marker is 1000% IndoEuropean, the Altaic marker is C3 from Turkey all the way to Japan, some suggest even into some North American tribes.

The dominance of the IndoEuropean languages in North India proves beyond doubt that the place was conquered by IndoEuropean invaders:

Originally Posted by Petros Houhoulis

Furthermore there has never been a trace of Altaic languages in India EVER:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lingui...story_of_India

THERE IS NON-INDO-EUROPEAN SUBSTRATUM IN INDO-ARYAN YOU FOOL

**Agyullámtörő** · 09-13-2018, 03:51 PM

Originally Posted by Kipchak Håkan

Nice try, Underhill et al. 2015: R1a clearly Turkic sweetheart

No need for anti-Turkic sentiments from eupedia and wikipedia. Finno-Ugric doesn't even exist.

It rather shows you have a mental illness called "sockpuppet-blogenoid".

Why turkic?

Because NOW the Turks live there?

**Agyullámtörő** · 09-13-2018, 03:54 PM

Originally Posted by Kipchak Håkan

Hello Mr. anonymous sockpuppet.

F. Altheim "Das alte Iran" writes that Iranian Avesta's most archaic texts, Gathas, are still not understood by today's linguists. 600 B.C. - R. Stiehlel writes, it is quite obvious that language of old Avesta is closely tied to ancient Altaic languages. Since newcomers to Iran joined older settled inhabitants often associated with Scythians, Türks and Finno-Ugrians, and borrowed much.

Franz Altheim and Ruth Stiehl, Geschichte Mittelasiens im Altertum (Berlin, 1970).

owned

next...

Do you know that Scythians were Iranic?

Have you any idea what is the difference between Iranian and Iranic?

You are a most autistic person in this forum

**Marmara** · 09-13-2018, 05:03 PM

Originally Posted by Petros Houhoulis

The R1a marker is 1000% IndoEuropean, the Altaic marker is C3 from Turkey all the way to Japan, some suggest even into some North American tribes.

Neither R1a-Z93 is Turkic (no R1 clades are) nor C3. C3 is a Mongolian haplogroup, it was spread to Central Asia by Mongol invasion, Kazaks score it highest among Turkic peoples because many Kazaks are Turkified Mongols.

R1a-Z93 is assimilated into Turkic, Arpad most likely has Hunnic background but not Turkic.

Huns were a collecion of Steppe Nomads.

**~~Petros Houhoulis~~** · 09-13-2018, 07:27 PM

Originally Posted by Marmara

Neither R1a-Z93 is Turkic (no R1 clades are) nor C3. C3 is a Mongolian haplogroup, it was spread to Central Asia by Mongol invasion, Kazaks score it highest among Turkic peoples because many Kazaks are Turkified Mongols.

Mongolian is also an Altaic language, wasn't it? Furthermore the Mongols were the main reason for the migration of the Turks, as well as countless others...

R1a-Z93 is assimilated into Turkic, Arpad most likely has Hunnic background but not Turkic.

Huns were a collecion of Steppe Nomads.

No other haplogroup than C3 is distributed all over the Altaic languages' spread. Q is related to the Uralic languages, and it is not present in many Altaic speaking countries, probably just a couple of them only.