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Are Yemenis part of the original group of Arabs or are they just Arabized?
Most of our former Sultans here in the Philippines claim descent from Yemen. Rajah Suleiman of Manila, a puppet rajah installed by Brunei (Who supplanted a local ruler, the Lakan of Tondo) had Sultan Bolkiah of Brunei as an ancestor, who in turn claim ancestry from Yemenese Arabs and these Yemenis are our links to the Arabian peninsula. Likewise, Sultan Bolkiah is also the ancestor of the Sulu Sultans in southern Philippines.
But us Visayans, lead by rulers such as Rajah Sri Lumay, an Indian-Malay Hindu who resisted Islamization and Datus such as the Animist Datu Pagbuaya Who survived the massacre by the Sultanate of Ternate of the Kedatuan of Dapitan, were fiercely anti-Islamic.
It's us who eventually got Christianized by the Mexicans and Spanish and had allied with them in invading Islamic Manila (Prying Luzon away from Brunei) and colonizing Muslim Mindanao.
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Yemenis were originally Arabian, but not Arabs. Arabian as in they are located in the Arabian peninsula, but their original languages were classified as South Semitic, being more related to the Semitic languages spoken in Ethiopia. But I think most of them were already Arabized by the first century.
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Thanks for the info. I heard that there's a war in Yemen right now though. And the Yemenis were quite troublemakers in the past. When the Sultanate of Aceh, in Sumatra, became a vassal of the Ottoman Caliphate and had asked Ottoman help against the Iberians who had conquered Malacca and the Philippines, the Ottomans had to divert their expeditionary force that was intended to aid Aceh because they were sidetracked by a rebellion from Yemen LOLS.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ottoma...dition_to_Aceh
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No. It's just that the Greeks mislabeled the entire peninsula as "Arabia" even though Arabs originated between NW Arabia and Southern Levant which was the original Arabia. Arabs had been in existence for over 3,000 years and it was originated as a self identification of these nomadic Semites.
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